Quran- Inventing Arabic Language
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Salam All~
I am confused...I know that the Quran states that it comes in Arabic for a purpose, just as it came with many messengers before to several nations to guide them the right way...but my question is " Is the Quran revealed to Muhammad(PBUH) the first time Arabic was revealed?" Or " was arabic a language before the Quran, and the Quran came in Arabic specifically for that reason?"
Shokran (Thank you)
HonorIf Al Quran and Arabic language were revealed at the same time, then how were the Arabs supposed to understand any of the revelations which came through Muhammad?
Of course Arabic already existed before Muhammad was even born sister. The reason Al Quran was in Arabic because it was revealed through an Arab messenger. If it was revealed to a Scottish messenger, then it would be in English .
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If it was revealed to a Scottish messenger, then it would be in English
Gaelic I believe.
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If Al Quran and Arabic language were revealed at the same time, then how were the Arabs supposed to understand any of the revelations which came through Muhammad? D D
Of course Arabic already existed before Muhammad was even born sister. The reason Al Quran was in Arabic because it was revealed through an Arab messenger. If it was revealed to a Scottish messenger, then it would be in English .
Yes...I know..it seemed an idiotic question, but that is precisely why I was so confused. ;D Hmmmm...I guess now...knowing the language exsisted, but not in written form..and then revealed in written form, whos to say, that (in the case of skeptics and non believers) that muhammad didn't just make up the written language?? I mean I know that the Quran is full of miracles, which proves its validity to me and allows me to have faith..but I guess my question is if muhammad spoke arabic, but didn't write it..then how when he was inspired, did he know how to write it? I mean, didn't he write or tell his inspiration over a period of time, and then after his death it was completely gathered and compiled? I guess I am wondering is there an archaelogical evidence to support that there was no written arabic at the time muhammad was born and, is there any archaelogical evidence to support otherwise? So, if a skeptic came to me, and said, arabic was written prior to the time muhammad was inspired, is there archaelogical evidence to disprove this?
I know maybe that sounds dumb...but Im just trying to gain a logical perspective here.
Honor
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Yes...I know..it seemed an idiotic question, but that is precisely why I was so confused. ;D Hmmmm...I guess now...knowing the language exsisted, but not in written form..and then revealed in written form, whos to say, that (in the case of skeptics and non believers) that muhammad didn't just make up the written language?? I mean I know that the Quran is full of miracles, which proves its validity to me and allows me to have faith..but I guess my question is if muhammad spoke arabic, but didn't write it..then how when he was inspired, did he know how to write it? I mean, didn't he write or tell his inspiration over a period of time, and then after his death it was completely gathered and compiled? I guess I am wondering is there an archaelogical evidence to support that there was no written arabic at the time muhammad was born and, is there any archaelogical evidence to support otherwise? So, if a skeptic came to me, and said, arabic was written prior to the time muhammad was inspired, is there archaelogical evidence to disprove this?
I know maybe that sounds dumb...but Im just trying to gain a logical perspective here.
Honor
Salam Sister,
Yes Arabic was in written form from before the time of the Prophet, language and scripts don't always go together hand in hand, and if my memory serves me, the very first record of Arabic written in it's Syriac/Nabatean derived script was about 200AD, nearly a good 400 years before Muhammad (saws) was born.
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I think this phenomenon can only be explained in terms of parallels/pseudo-parallels in the modern day.
The dynamics of the origin and pollination of Arabic language in the time of the exalted prophet in my opinion is very similar to that of Urdu/Hindi... not only is this "language" spoken differently throughout the Indo-Pak, its spoken form can be understood by people from different parts of the subcontinent very easily (people speaking Urdu may find Hindi a bit too informal and a little insulting in tone... speakers of Hindi may find Urdu too formal and uncomfortable in terms of every-day use). Transliteration has never been an issue... Urdu is written in Arabic/Persian script (with evident Semitic, Mesopotamian and Anatolian influence) while Hindi is written in the Devanagri script (with Indian and Vedic influence), however, the spoken form and structure are quite similar unless you start comparing rural localized dialects such as Gujrati, Sindhi, Taamil, Bengali.
Moreso, in Pakistan the religious language is Arabic, and is used by the religious "elite" or mullahs, while Urdu is a common person's lanugage. Similarly, Sanskrit is used by Pandits in ceremonies/chants India while Hindi is the common mans lingo. The model is very similar, even when there is rich Urdu poetry/literature from the times of the late Mughal era.
Coming back to the main topic, Arabic has been relatively more coherent and less "wordy" since it was influenced by Semitic lanugages such as Sabaic, Safaitic, Aramaic/Syriac, Hebrew and perhaps even Greek and all these languages are somewhat derived from Phonician.
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I think you're confusing languages and scripts brother.
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I am not but maybe this needs clarification at my part...
A linguistic model can never be the same for two languages (such as my comparison of Arabic with Urdu/Hindi), but it can have similar dynamics.
What I was saying is that Arabic could have varied in spoken form in various regions, just the way Urdu/Hindi is varied across the Indian subcontinent. It could have been written in various scripts (such as Nabataean, Safaitic etc) the way Urdu/Hindi is written in Arabic/Persian as well as Devangri scripts, and was a mostly spoken language while Nabataean, Hebrew, Syriac and Greek were considered literary/religious languages in these areas, just the way Arabic & Persian are literary/religious-elite lanuages in Pakistan and Sanskrit is in India.
That is tha parallel I am talking about... I am not companring Urdu with Hindi but considering them both as ONE spoken language, and comparing its dynamics to the Pre-Islamic (spoken) Arabic.
I hope this clarifies it...
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Salam Sister,
Yes Arabic was in written form from before the time of the Prophet, language and scripts don't always go together hand in hand, and if my memory serves me, the very first record of Arabic written in it's Syriac/Nabatean derived script was about 200AD, nearly a good 400 years before Muhammad (saws) was born.
Salam Al-Quraishi~
If that is the case, then how do skeptics believe, when our whole religion is based on the idea that it had to be in Arabic, and it was Muhammad(PBUH) that supposedly brought forth the first arabic script? I mean this is what the sunnis believe...so now...no offense, my faith is not lost, but somewhat hindered...because now, there is proof that this is not true. Muhammad did not bring forth, Arabic as the first written language in Arabic. So...now I feel .....skeptical...I guess, I feel like...are we disillusioned? I mean, most Islamists think they belong to a special untouched,religion that brought the holy script of arabic, they use this as making themselves seem better than most. e.i. Muhammad was an Arab, Quran was inspired to Muhammad, and written in arabic, Muhammad was the last prophet. Some arabs and sunnis in general use these examples to their arrogant benefit. So..I dont know..i feel upset now, knowing that what was supposed to be a special signifigance is false.
grrrrrrrrrrrr..... (
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I personally do not understand what sister Honor is so upset about. Why is it a problem that Al Quran was not the first Arabic script? Basically most ancient people expecially around the Mediterranean area already had some kind of writing form for millenia.
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I think it may be hard for us to grasp what she is feeling, seeing as though you have asked me I will try my best to help.
Do I take it you came into Islam thinking Muhammad came with the Qur'an in Arabic and it was new? And there was something special about this?
How do we start,
Arabic has been spoken for a looong time, and perhaps like other languages it has been evolving (however at what rate is a different issue - Arabic is unique in that it doesn't change like other languages) Anyway, back to the point, before the revelation of the Qur'an the Children of Israel had been given the law in their own language (The Torah written in Hebrew, which is very closesly related to Arabic) and other communities had been sent messengers.
Muhammad (salallahu alayhi wa salam) was a simple Arab, and Arabs were people who lived in the desert Areas in and south of the Nefud (in between Iraq and what is now Israel) they traded with these areas but their homeland was rooted in the Desert peninsula. Nothing was very special about the Arabs in terms of religion if we compare them to the Children of Israel.
Among the Arabs there were Christians and Jews, but the majority held polytheistic beliefs due to human innovations, and the Arabs, like every other community had messengers sent to them. However they weren't like the Children of Israel, they were Gentiles, and to the Arabs was sent the Prophet Muhammad, and Muhammad was given the Qur'an.
In terms of literature, it did exist, but it's understandable that it's use wasn't prevalent in desert areas compared to Urban regions, and yes you are correct, some sunnis and others such as non-Muslims have the naive view that the Qur'an was the first book compiled in Arabic even though we know there were scribes in the cities of Mekkah and Medinah who readily took note when the prophet was given revelation.
Anyway the main point is, if nobody knew about Arabic, it would have been very hard to convey the message of Islam, the fact that it was spoken before the Qur'an's creation is obvious when you think about it, the Jews spoke Hebrew and their prophets came to them speaking that language and their revealed books were the very same.
I hope I have been able to help,
Regards,
Al-Quraishi
