verse 4:3 and polygamy
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4-3 And if you fear that you cannot act equitably towards orphans, then marry such women as seem good to you, twos and threes and fours; but if you fear that you will not do justice (between them), then (marry) only one or what your right hands possess; this is more proper, that you may not deviate from the right course
Again this fits perfectly for both (the orphan's mothers, as well as the orphaned young women) the verse can mean both.
I guess we got to find a clue from some other verse. hmm
or,
leave it either ways , what difference does it make? The verses are covering both the situations.
And practically both the situations are as likely.
siki
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Peace Ayman
Ayman I doubt that Samia said that it means "Female of Orphans" because this doesn't make sense in any language (English or Arabic).
I will wait Samia to defend her understanding.
When a minor orphan girl attains marriageable age how do you call her in Arabic or English?
Yataman nisa does not mean orphans mother. What is the literal translation of ?Yataman nisa?
Ayman ?Female of Orphans" because this doesn't make sense in any language (English or Arabic).
Possibly it doesn?t make sense in any language because no body thought it is important to distinguish them but the Quran protects the right of an orphan girl who has attained the marriageable age and make them distinguished over other women of similar age in respect to certain rights. Even today in most societies a girl without the mother and father under a guardian will be under duress in making most important decisions in her life even after she attends the age of marriage.
A male orphan reaching the age of maturity will be able to make independent decisions and act independently without surrendering to undue influence compared to a female orphan.
Ayman It can't mean "female out of the orphans". Look at passages such as 423 where like in 4127 two human descriptions are used. You can see "umahat" (mothers) "nisaukum" (your women). The possessive has the same effect of the definite article in that it makes it specific. Of course, "umahat al-nisaa" cannot mean "females out of the mothers" or even "female mothers".
I do not think it a good parallel from you. "umahat" (mothers) "nisaukum" (your women) is ?mothers of your wives? because it is ?your women?. Why bring an analogy such as ?female mothers? which makes no sense.
Ayman
- And they seek advice from you concerning the women. Say
"The God gives you advice about
(1) them (women) and about what is recited on you in the book concerning the orphans of the women (this is in reference to 43, the only other passage where women and orphans are mentioned together) who (the women) you don't give them (the women) what was written for them (the women) and you want to marry them (the women).
(2) and the weak of the children (both male and female)
(3) and that you should stand for the orphans (both male and female) with justice
And what you do from good, the god surely knows it well."
The passage above is giving advice about THREE distinct entities The women who have orphans (i.e. widows), the weak of the children (both male and female) and the orphans (both male and female).
?And they seek advice from you concerning the WOMEN?. The theme of 4127 is women.
?Orphans of the women? is this same as the ?women who have orphans? (i.e. widows)
In the sentence one (1) how did you switch from ?orphans of the women? to ?who (the women)? you don't give them?(I have highlighted this in bold below. Please explain since my Arabic is poor)
The God gives you advice about
(1) them (women) and about what is recited on you in the book concerning the orphans of the women (this is in reference to 43, the only other passage where women and orphans are mentioned together) who (the women) you don't give them (the women) what was written for them (the women) and you want to marry them (the women). - And they seek advice from you concerning the women. Say
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Salaam warner
Ayman is right. I did not say that it means female orphan's but mother of orphans. I explained that "yatamaa" is not a feminine adj/noun so it can't be a descripton of females. Further I said that there is nothing as "orphaned women". Once they reach the age of marriage, they are women, not orphans.
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Peace Samia
Sorry I misunderstood you but what I meant was it was not grammatically wrong.(appreciate you coming in at the right moment to assist me)
What if the nisa is the adjective and yatama is the noun.
Samia I did not say that it means female orphan's but mother of orphans
There is no ?umm? in this so it can not be mother of orphans.
It its possible there was no feminine adj/noun for orphans at the time of the revelation and yateema and yateemaat are words which would have been later inclusions to the language.
Samia Once they reach the age of marriage, they are women, not orphans
Who made this rule and when?
The above is what most may assume but the Quran says otherwise. Is it a issue of prevalent social rule against the Quranic rule ?
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Salaam warner
What if the nisa is the adjective and yatama is the noun.
But that is not the case! And can't be. The adjective takes the two genders and the plurals; nisaa' is just a single and a plural words
There is no ?umm? in this so it can not be mother of orphans.
I also explained this
If we say ummahaatul yatamaa (mothers of orphans), the emphasis will be on mothers, not yataaa
If we say "yatamaal ummahaat", this will give a different meaning orphans whose mothers are dead.Nisaa' is also used for "wives" in the qur'aan.
Samia Once they reach the age of marriage, they are women, not orphans
Who made this rule and when?
Yatamaa are vulnerable children, and the proof is that God does not put rules for them based on gender.
Have you seen an orphanage full of adults?Moreover, most adults are orphans, but God does not put a special rule for them, or any concessions in punishment or duties.
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Peace Samia
What if the nisa is the adjective and yatama is the noun.
Samia But that is not the case! And can't be. The adjective takes the two genders and the plurals; nisaa' is just a single and a plural words
I did not understand this, can you please explain this again.
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Peace Samia
I did not understand this, can you please explain this again.
Salaam warner
A simpler explanation
nisaa' is plural of two words, both nouns imra'a woman; and nas' what comes late, what remains
yataamaa is plural of an adjective yateem orphaned child
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Dear samia
Has this word Nissa been used in the great reading in any other sense than "women"?
What is the difference when God uses the word NISSA instead of " Amraa" or vice versa?
could you do a little work on the issue? as it is very important.
peace
siki
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Dear samia
Has this word Nissa been used in the great reading in any other sense than "women"?
What is the difference when God uses the word NISSA instead of " Amraa" or vice versa?
could you do a little work on the issue? as it is very important.
siki
peace
Salaam siki
nisaa' is plural whereas imra'a is singular.
Imra'a has no plural of its nature, but it has a singular masculine imri'un.
Nisaa' has a singular of its nature nas', which does not mean imra'a. It means " that which comes later, that which stays behind ,remains". Sociolinguistically this plural is used for "women"; just as "rajul"and "rijaal", which originally means "on foot", is used for men.The derivative of the word "nas'" is used in the qur'aan, as in 937, about a kind of usuary where the agreement is changed by the lender, thus comes later than the original agreement; and in 3414, as a name of tool "minsa'a" a cane, or maybe something else, on which or against which Solomon rested. In verse 2106, some who believe that this verse compares between quraan and previous revelations, read "nunsiha make it forgotten" as "nunsi'ha" delay it, bring it later
But since "nisaa'" is generally used for women, we have to see where it would be meaningless to substitute it for "women", as in verses 361 or 434 or 2431 or 33 55
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There is this one guy who studied Al Quran using studyquran.org and come up with the translation of 43 in which he believes that God forbids men from marrying 2 times 3 times and 4 times because in 2432 God tells us only to marry off singles among female and male.
Can someone please clarify this issue?
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Dr Shabbir
2432 And marry the single among you, (whether they are widowed, divorced or bachelors). And those who are still being kept as slaves, male or female, such of them as are fit to marry. If they are poor, Allah will enrich them with His Bounty, for, Allah is of Infinite means, All-Knowing.PM translation
2432 And marry off those among you that are single, and the good from among your male and female servants. If they are poor, then God will grant them from His grace. And God is Encompassing, Knowledgeable.024.032
YUSUFALI Marry those among you who are single, or the virtuous ones among yourselves, male or female if they are in poverty, Allah will give them means out of His grace for Allah encompasseth all, and he knoweth all things.PICKTHAL And marry such of you as are solitary and the pious of your slaves and maid-servants. If they be poor, Allah will enrich them of His bounty. Allah is of ample means, Aware.
SHAKIR And marry those among you who are single and those who are fit among your male slaves and your female slaves; if they are needy, Allah will make them free from want out of His grace; and Allah is Ample-giving, Knowing.
Is is marry or marry off? I think if it is marry - then it means you (the man) may not necessarily be single - but should marry a woman who is single (widowed/single/divorced etc)
I have no idea though - just a thought!But then if it is addressing the men - why would it include male slaves to marry/marry off? mmmm im confused!
It brings us right back to 43 and its meaning ?!? still no conclusions?
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024.032
YUSUFALI Marry those among you who are single, or the virtuous ones among yourselves, male or female if they are in poverty, Allah will give them means out of His grace for Allah encompasseth all, and he knoweth all things.Doesnt it mean that both the male and female gotta be single?
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Is is marry or marry off? I think if it is marry - then it means you (the man) may not necessarily be single - but should marry a woman who is single (widowed/single/divorced etc)
I have no idea though - just a thought!But then if it is addressing the men - why would it include male slaves to marry/marry off? mmmm im confused!
It brings us right back to 43 and its meaning ?!? still no conclusions?
You are answering yourself. It is not addressing "men". It is addressing both men and women, that's why.
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Peace Ay
With all due respect to the extensive and monumental work of Lane it has its limitations. If we can find the correct meaning for each and every word from his lexicon we will not be spending time debating so much about the Quraan. Lanes is 1200 years after the revelation and it is greatly influenced by many non Quranic interpretations and corruptions which happened in between that time. The Quraan is a great dictionary and if the meaning is wrong logic or linguistics will reject the word and beyond this the it should not give rise to contradictions.
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yes i forgot to add
i did a search for the word ayamait only appears in that form in 2432
(i use http//quran.muslim-web.com/ btw)
Im not sure AYM is the correct root after all... i did a root search and 116 verses came up with words from that root, but 2432 was not one of them. (unless i searched wrong - i will double check as soon as i get a chance)
ps. warner i agree with what you say about lanes - but it is something to consider also...