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  4. Is muhammad really the last prophet?

Is muhammad really the last prophet?

Scheduled Pinned Locked Moved Questions/Comments on the Quran
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  • S Offline
    S Offline
    shez
    wrote on last edited by
    #13

    Peace Allen,

    What I meant was that those three signs do not rule out this possibility.

    I am not interested in a debate on this. I just wanted to share a possiblity which is neither the final word nor a revelation from The God. I did not say that al-qur'aan IS NOT the last scripture, but MAY NOT be the last scripture from The God. Others are free to disagree or refute this from al-qur'aan.

    3340 Mohammed was not the father of any of your men, but he is the messenger of God and the seal (khatam) of the prophets. And God is fully aware of all things.

    isnt this verse enough for you or are you denying this verse?

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    • J Offline
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      Jack
      wrote on last edited by
      #14

      Might want to re-read the thread from the beginning.

      Yes I already know of 3340 and the best meaning of khatam there has to be seal/imprint/stamp

      3340 Mohammed was not the father of any of your men, but he is the messenger of God and the seal (khatam) of the prophets. And God is fully aware of all things.

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      • M Offline
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        Mazhar
        wrote on last edited by
        #15

        Ya_ ayuhan nabiy yu,

        O, You the Nabi!

        idza_ thal laq tumun nisa_ a fathal liqu_hun na li id datihin na wa ahshul id data

        When you people divorce your wives then divorce them for the Idat fixed for them and you husbands count that period"

        Indiuvidual husbands know what exactly is the Idat of his/their wife/wives-three periods or three months.
        And this fact is known only to the wife and her husband. No one else has the right to know or enquire about it, since it is exclusive private affair of a woman.
        Here a procedure is being laid down for the people how to give effect to their decision of divorcing a wife.

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        • T Offline
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          TheNabi
          wrote on last edited by
          #16

          Peace

          Because much of the passage speaks about special circumstances applicable to the nabiyy I think 33/40 should be read in that context in order to understand the implication of khatam there.

          Joe

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          • S Offline
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            Samia
            wrote on last edited by
            #17

            And this fact is known only to the wife and her husband.

            How would many husbands know?

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            • H Offline
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              huruf
              wrote on last edited by
              #18

              Muhammad is my last profet. Muhammad will be the last prophet for those who find his message is sufficient and complete. The rest, I don't know and Thank God, I don't need to know.

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              • M Offline
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                Mazhar
                wrote on last edited by
                #19

                How would many husbands know?{Samia}

                Sister,

                I could not understand. A husband has to divorce his own wife not a neighbors' wife. Individual husband knows as to what exactly is the prescribed "Idat" of his wife and he has to divorce his wife for that particular Idat, three periods if she has regular one; and in case she has reached menopause or premature menopause or her ovaries are removed; husband is doubtful because of interruptions or disorder in periods then the period with regard to that wife is not three periods but three months. These details are known only to wife and her husband.

                I think Allah has put the husband, who decided and then divorced his wife, busy in countdown and thus made that woman the focus of his attention whom he wants to get rid of. There seems a delicacy to arouse affection and love. Particularly because in the next line it is prescribed that the divorced wives should not be expelled from "their homes". Divorcee has to live with her husband during the "Idat" period and that home has been called "her home". Muslims care little about this injunction of Quran.

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                • S Offline
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                  Samia
                  wrote on last edited by
                  #20

                  Salaam Mazhar

                  What I mean is that the verse does not address the prophet and the believers/men, but the prophet and those who have authority. Men do not divorce women, a judge does according to the laws of the qur'aan. They (judges/those who have authority) do not know the "idat" of a woman, but women tell their idat. If a woman can hide her pregnancy, how about menses?

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                  • M Offline
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                    Mazhar
                    wrote on last edited by
                    #21

                    Sister,

                    I am in a fix. Are you suggesting that husband A wishes to divorce his wife. The judge of the court announces the divorce and asks the lady to tell him whether or not she experiences menses, then asks her is her menses regular; and on the basis of information provided by her the judge decides the "prescribed duration" after which the marriage shall stand annulled if no settlement is arrived at between the husband and wife during that period?

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                    • S Offline
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                      Samia
                      wrote on last edited by
                      #22

                      Why not?

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                      • U Offline
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                        unknownuser
                        wrote on last edited by
                        #23

                        Nowadays it should also be provable using solid evidence.

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                        • U Offline
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                          unknownuser
                          wrote on last edited by
                          #24

                          Salaam Mazhar

                          What I mean is that the verse does not address the prophet and the believers/men, but the prophet and those who have authority. Men do not divorce women, a judge does according to the laws of the qur'aan. They (judges/those who have authority) do not know the "idat" of a woman, but women tell their idat. If a woman can hide her pregnancy, how about menses?

                          sun

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                          • S Offline
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                            siki
                            wrote on last edited by
                            #25

                            Salaam Mazhar

                            What I mean is that the verse does not address the prophet and the believers/men, but the prophet and those who have authority. Men do not divorce women, a judge does according to the laws of the qur'aan. They (judges/those who have authority) do not know the "idat" of a woman, but women tell their idat. If a woman can hide her pregnancy, how about menses?

                            Samia , salam

                            The verse says ,,,,,,, "you" (people), not ....... "who have authority", can you tell me how have you deduced the red part from the verse?

                            siki

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                            • S Offline
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                              Samia
                              wrote on last edited by
                              #26

                              Samia , salam

                              The verse says ,,,,,,, "you" (people), not ....... "who have authority", can you tell me how have you deduced the red part from the verse?

                              siki

                              Salaam siki

                              First I see that the prophet is addressed in asmuch as prophet, judge of people. If it were just for believers, why include the prophet here? Does the qur'aan address the believers AND the prophet anywhere else?

                              Secondly, husbands are not to divorce women by their sole will. If the qur'aan tells us that in case of "nushouz" and in case of adultery, husbands should consult counsils and people of authority and that it's those people who decide; then when would a man divorce by his sole will?

                              Verses do not always say You men and women, you who did so and so". We try to understand that from the context. If we can figure out who is addressed, many verses will be better understood.

                              I think the misunderstanding of this verse is one of the main reasons why we have all this messing with divorce and post divorce problems, and the lack of responsibilty shown in many divorces carried out by some irresponsible men, unfortunately the majority. Plus women and children allowances are left to the whims of some irresponsible husbands. If a divorce is carried out in front of a judge, we will not see "remote control" divorces, sometimes by letters that do not arrive to the divorced wife, verbal divorces, , sms divorces, confusion about how many divorces were uttered...These problems will be tackeled on the spot.

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                              • S Offline
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                                siki
                                wrote on last edited by
                                #27

                                Samia!
                                salam. Technically speaking ,what you say, that is how it should be, but i still don't see the "Authority guys" anywhere, May be , lets cross reference and recheck, this is a very important issue.

                                siki

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                                • J Offline
                                  J Offline
                                  Jack
                                  wrote on last edited by
                                  #28

                                  Peace,

                                  Here's my updated understanding on Muhammad being the last prophet. The quran uses very precise wording. If the God wanted to say that Muhammad was the last prophet, it would have used 'aakhir' not 'khatam' in 3340. As the word for final is 'aakhir'. For Example the hereafter is called 'al aakhir' repeatedly.

                                  Seal/Khatam of the prophets means 'authenticates the prophets' i.e. their messages are found in Al Quran for our guidance, without corruption.

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                                  • M Offline
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                                    Mahmud_H
                                    wrote on last edited by
                                    #29

                                    Peace all,

                                    This is slightly off-topic but relevant. According to 3340, Muhammad is the last prophet/nabi but not necessarily the last messenger/rasool. The angels of death have been called messengers/rusul too (661). Hence it follows that there could be messengers/rusul after prophet Muhammad.

                                    Now, according to 2213 and 5725, the scripture can be sent down with both messengers and prophets

                                    2213 The people used to be one nation, then God sent the prophets as bearers of good news and warners, and He sent down with them the scripture/al-kitaab with the facts so that they may judge between the people in what they were disputing. But after receiving the clarity, the people disputed in it due to animosity between them. And God guided those who believed with His permission regarding what they disputed in of the truth. And God guides whoever He wishes to a straight path.

                                    5725 We have sent our messengers with clear proofs, and We sent down with them the scripture/al-kitaab and the balance, so that the people may uphold justice. And We sent down the iron, wherein there is great strength, and many benefits for the people. So that God would distinguish those who would support Him and His messengers on faith. God is Powerful, Noble.

                                    Please note that the same word "al-kitaab" has been used for both prophets and messengers.

                                    Combining 2213 with 5725 and 3340, it follows that there could be another scripture sent down with another messenger after Muhammad.

                                    HENCE AL-QUR'AAN MAY NOT BE THE LAST SCRIPTURE FROM THE GOD !!!.

                                    I think this difference between "Prophet" and "Messenger" is significant. Muhammad (pbuh) clearly seems to have preferred the term 'messenger' to 'prophet', which is why in the Shahadah 'Messenger' is used. Messenger emphasises the humanity of Muhammad, whilst 'prophet' has an unwanted supernatural ring to it. Whilst I wouldn't go as far as to talk about new 'scriptures', I think it is important to get out of the mindset of trying to limit God. Allah can do anything he wants, we can't go telling him 'you can't communicate with humanity anymore because Muhammad was the last prophet'. It's nonsense. There are no limits to what God can do if he so wills. He doesn't even need scriptures, he can speak to anyone's soul. If Allah gives a command, it is so.

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                                    • J Offline
                                      J Offline
                                      Jack
                                      wrote on last edited by
                                      #30

                                      I believe messenger and prophet are the same thing (notice how the terms are used interchangably in 491-3). I also don't ascribe to the theory of 'new scriptures'; it doesn't exist in Al quran. Every messenger/prophet will bring the same message and follow the same manual(42/13, 41/43, 46/9).

                                      He/she may bring newer books, but it will contain the same message.

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                                      • WakasW Offline
                                        WakasW Offline
                                        Wakas
                                        wrote on last edited by
                                        #31

                                        peace HMD, all,

                                        The terms "messenger/rasul" and "prophet/nabi" are not equivalent everywhere in AQ in my opinion. If someone is known by two terms, this does not make the two terms equivalent and always interchangeable, at best only when definitely referring to the same person.

                                        He/she may bring newer books, but it will contain the same message.

                                        Same overall message yes, but not necessarily the exact same content, 100%.

                                        All information is correct to the best of my knowledge only and thus should not be taken as a fact. One should always seek knowledge and verify for themselves when possible: 17:36, 20:114, 35:28, 49:6, 58:11.

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                                        • H Offline
                                          H Offline
                                          honor
                                          wrote on last edited by
                                          #32

                                          Salam All,

                                          I understand that the signifigance of knowing whether Muhammad (PBUH) was the last prophet may be important to our interpretation and beliefs of the way in which we practice Islam, (e.g. sunnism) However, I think what is most important is finding whether the Quran is the last inspiration via a prophet. To me, no offence, but the Quran is of way more significance than the prophet. Because the quran follows the bible and the Torah, and states it is without error, and came to correct error previously upheld in the other scriptures, I believe no matter what prophet or messenger comes after the Quran is still to be upheld and it is the final law. My opinion of course. So, what importance would this have if another prophet came to preach,..hmm, well I suppose, since i believe so firmly in God and the Quran. I would hope he came to confirm what is already with us, but there will be no other book.

                                          Honor

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