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  4. What do you make of this explanation?

What do you make of this explanation?

Scheduled Pinned Locked Moved General Issues / Questions
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  • J Offline
    J Offline
    jonny_k
    wrote on last edited by
    #1

    http//www.youtube.com/watch?v=dMkCqnzcpZY

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    • L Offline
      L Offline
      loli
      wrote on last edited by
      #2

      reasonably agreed

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      • R Offline
        R Offline
        Riz
        wrote on last edited by
        #3

        Jesus and the whole 1st century Palestinian area spoke Aramaic, not Hebrew. To say that all the prophets actually got revelation in Arabic is an anachronism as Quranic Arabic didn't exist during the time of Jesus or any other prophet. Moses didn't exactly speak Hebrew either as it was very different from the Hebrew of Jesus' time and our time. Of course God has translated what Moses and Jesus said, it wouldn't make sense if he revealed passages in Hebrew or Aramaic to a people that didn't speak either.

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        • J Offline
          J Offline
          Jack
          wrote on last edited by
          #4

          Don't know what Jesus did or didn't do, there's not even evidence that the man existed. Not saying that he didn't, it's quiet irrelevant to me.

          So anything you'd have is total hearsay. Are we replacing the hadeeth of Muhammad for other hadeeth?

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          • R Offline
            R Offline
            Riz
            wrote on last edited by
            #5

            Don't know what Jesus did or didn't do, there's not even evidence that the man existed. Not saying that he didn't, it's quiet irrelevant to me.

            So anything you'd have is total hearsay. Are we replacing the hadeeth of Muhammad for other hadeeth?

            Not sure if you are referring to my post, but it isn't hearsay or speculation that people in 1st century Palestine spoke Aramaic.

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            • J Offline
              J Offline
              Jack
              wrote on last edited by
              #6

              Wasn't referring to that.

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              • M Offline
                M Offline
                Mahmud_H
                wrote on last edited by
                #7

                http//www.youtube.com/watch?v=dMkCqnzcpZY

                Nonsense on stilts. Twisting the meaning of the Quranic passages to claim unreasonable authority, saying that only with Arabic can you have direct access to Allah's revelations. It's just arabic speakers trying to be pompous.

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                • J Offline
                  J Offline
                  jonny_k
                  wrote on last edited by
                  #8

                  Peace all,
                  If you see his entire lecure on "al-kitaab" youll see that he uses Quranic verses to "prove" that Quranan Arabiyyan ALWAYS came to every Prophet and from there was then translated into the language of the people by the Prophet. Also i wrote to iipc that Quranic ARabic didnt exist back in Jesus time BUT he gnored that and said that we must trust the Quran. And somebody here also said that we dont know when Jesus and Moses lived-. What if they lived just 2000 years ago? Then the Quranic ARabic wouldve existed. So i guess this issues remains open. GOD Bless!

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                  • M Offline
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                    Mahmud_H
                    wrote on last edited by
                    #9

                    Of course we know when Jesus lived. His execution was recorded both by the local Roman imperial authorities and in the records of the Jewish Sanhedrin, accurate to the nearest 5 years he was crucified around AD 30. This is in contrast to Moses, for whom there are no reliable records outside the Bible.

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                    • J Offline
                      J Offline
                      jonny_k
                      wrote on last edited by
                      #10

                      Peace "Mahmud_H",
                      And at that time there was no Quranic Arabic meaning with the grammar and style as the Quran phrases its terms? GOD Bless!

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