Do the Jews believe in Day of Judgement?
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Salam Dear All
6154 We had given Moses the Scripture complete for him who would do good to others. We gave him the Scripture in detail as guidance and a mercy that they might believe in the meeting of their Lord (and that all actions are recompensed).
The above clearly indicates that the scripture given to Moses had therein a reference/warning/good news about "Meeting of their Lord" .
Does the Torah we have today contain verses to this effect?
Or is the above verse referring to a Day of Results in this world, therefore warning Jews to bear that in mind?
Thanks.
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Salam Dear All
6154 We had given Moses the Scripture complete for him who would do good to others. We gave him the Scripture in detail as guidance and a mercy that they might believe in the meeting of their Lord (and that all actions are recompensed).
The above clearly indicates that the scripture given to Moses had therein a reference/warning/good news about "Meeting of their Lord" .
Does the Torah we have today contain verses to this effect?
Or is the above verse referring to a Day of Results in this world, therefore warning Jews to bear that in mind?
Thanks.
It an interesting topic. Jesus was vert aware of this when the Jewish sects the Saduccees who do not believe in a day of judgement asked him this exact question.
Mark 12 18-27
18 Then the Sadducees, who say there is no resurrection, came to him with a question. 19 ?Teacher,? they said, ?Moses wrote for us that if a man?s brother dies and leaves a wife but no children, the man must marry the widow and raise up offspring for his brother. 20 Now there were seven brothers. The first one married and died without leaving any children. 21 The second one married the widow, but he also died, leaving no child. It was the same with the third. 22 In fact, none of the seven left any children. Last of all, the woman died too. 23 At the resurrection whose wife will she be, since the seven were married to her??
24 Jesus replied, ?Are you not in error because you do not know the Scriptures or the power of God? 25 When the dead rise, they will neither marry nor be given in marriage; they will be like the angels in heaven. 26 Now about the dead rising?have you not read in the Book of Moses, in the account of the burning bush, how God said to him, ?I am the God of Abraham, the God of Isaac, and the God of Jacob?? 27 He is not the God of the dead, but of the living. You are badly mistaken!?
http//www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Mark+12&version=NIV
Here Jesus was fully aware of why the Saduccees asked him that question as they believed that the day of resurrection was absent in the Torah. Jesus responded by telling them they were not reading the scriptures carefully. God can't be the God of the non existing. So when God refered to Himself as the God of Abraham and Isaac and jacob to Moses it means that Abraham is alive and well. When God refers to Himself as the God of your forefathers that means those forefathers exist. This is a very smart theological response and the Saduccees knew that since God can not be a God of something that does not exist.
This exchange is a proof that the Old Testament we have today is exactly what Jesus had.
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Thank you Bogmo