A refutation to Bro Yaseen - Polygamy is allowed in 4 23
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I think ?AND? here is reasonable use to convey the message since just as in English language ?And? is used in Arabic to mean ?also/ as well as? as you can see the use in the following verses and also in few other places in the Quran.
337 And when We took from the prophets their covenant, "wa"/and from you, "wa"/and from Noah, and Abraham, and Moses, and Jesus the son of Mary; We took from them a strong covenant.
5568 In them are fruits "wa"/and date palms, "wa"/and pomegranate.
"Fruits" includes "pomegranates" even though they are separated by "wa"/and.So possibly ?And? covers men in all 3 situations of having 2, 3 and 4 wives together.
But with 423 and 4129 do you still think polygamy is not allowed ?
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What reason can there be to allow already married men to marry those women, when there are single men available?
I would assume that there was an excess of available men compared to the number of available women considering the possible demographic of that region.
Please see my other thread for details.
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What reason can there be to allow already married men to marry those women, when there are single men available?
I would assume that there was an excess of available men compared to the number of available women considering the possible demographic of that region.
Please see my other thread for details.
The reason polygamy already existed at that time, now why are youj ealous??
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Peace San
4129 is clear indication of polygamy but it refers to the case of being unfair to one which sould not be the case. 43 instructs if you can not be fair not to marry more than one.
Peace Sarah
From which verse did this single men come from ? Any way the assumption of single men being available is information outside the Quran which you can not use as argument against the clear message allowing polygamy in the Quran.
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Peace San
4129 is clear indication of polygamy but it refers to the case of being unfair to one which sould not be the case. 43 instructs if you can not be fair not to marry more than one.
And you will never be able to be equal between the ladies... That'd always be the case with polygamy, if i were to read 4129 literally. The rest of the verse suggest the best compromise one can take. Then...
4130 And if they separate, Allah will enrich each from His abundance. And ever is Allah Encompassing and Wise.
If it weren't for the children (btw yatama means "fatherless" and not "parents-less"--please contrast that of 43 to that of 4127 where yataman-nisa is specifically addressed) then i had no idea why one should get into polygamy in this world.
Oh yeah. Pretty youth is one of the most common reasons--at least that's what i usually see...
Peace
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From which verse did this single men come from ? Any way the assumption of single men being available is information outside the Quran which you can not use as argument against the clear message allowing polygamy in the Quran.
Did you even read my other thread? I am not referring to verses, I am asking a question about the possible demographic of that area.
There were high rates of maternal mortality, right?
There was female infanticide, right?
What do you think is the result?
Is it a 'clear' message that polygamy is allowed for any individual with the exception of the Prophet Muhammad? And if it were, why is it also discouraged?
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Any way the assumption of single men being available is information outside the Quran which you can not use as argument against the clear message allowing polygamy in the Quran.
False. There is a verse in the Quran (don't remember where) that says that they should not kill their female children. That indicates it was common practice, and even if not common, it happened often enough to warrant a verse condemning it.
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Peace San
Good argument. But the problem I see is that the clause is qualified by...even if it is your ardent desire( were very careful),...
and continued with ..."; so do not sway too greatly and leave her as one hanging in a void. "
If the verse ended with " you will never be able to be equal between the ladies" then your argument is valid but it has a qulaifier and a continuation. One can take up the argument
Clueless on the pretty youth
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Sarah,
Its the verse "Oh wives of the Prophet"...it occurs more than once
Killing the women does not mean less women. We can use outside factors only if the message in the Quran can not be understood. But polygamy is clearly allowed in the Quran . So outside assumption even if it is correct can not over rule the clear verse.
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orphans and widows are terms used to describe paragraph spacing in word-processing.
If a paragraph runs onto two pages the lines on the bottom of the first page are referred to as orphans and the lines on the top of page two are referred to as widows.
Any way orphan mean a motherless or fatherless or parentless police
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Killing the women does not mean less women.
yeah
Say there are 52 boys born, and 48 girls. Of those 48 girls, say 5 are killed as infants. The kids then grow up and are now in their twenties. Do you not have more boys than girls?
This is very simple arithmetic. -
orphans and widows are terms used to describe paragraph spacing in word-processing.
If a paragraph runs onto two pages the lines on the bottom of the first page are referred to as orphans and the lines on the top of page two are referred to as widows.
offtopic
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We can use outside factors only if the message in the Quran can not be understood. But polygamy is clearly allowed in the Quran . So outside assumption even if it is correct can not over rule the clear verse.
nope, it isn't. If it was, it wouldn't be debatable, and you wouldn't have so many verses discouraging it, that can be taken as something that was common practice/ traditional at that time, without being Quranically justified, like the verses telling people to 'free the slaves.'
It doesn't mean that slavery is 'allowed but discouraged' in the Quran, but it's setting a precedent to bring about, over time, a situation where slavery is eradicated.