Surah Al-Muminun (23:6) and Surah Al-Maarij (70:30)
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In a recent online discussion, I protested that Islam does not allow sex-slave. However, the following was replied to me. "Surah Al-Muminun (236) and Surah Al-Maarij (7030) both, in identical wording, draw a distinction between spouses and "those whom one's right hands possess" (female slaves), saying " " (literally, "their spouses or what their right hands possess", while clarifying that sexual intercourse with either is permissible. The purchase of female slaves for sex was lawful from the perspective of Islamic law, and this was the most common motive for the purchase of slaves throughout Islamic history."
I tried to study the tafsir of the verses but things don't look good to me. Can anyone give me a proper explanation?
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Peace Jaqen Hghar
Here is the problem verse that most translate to imply"having sex with".You need to concentrate on getting this translation right ,then one can understand why GOD added "Aw Ma Malakat Aymanukum" to the next verse.
It certainly has nothing to do with "having sex with".
My view is GOD is talking about "private parts" (Man or woman) .They are private except for spouses and ....( This for me could mean your doctor/nurse etc. My understanding.
Anyway ,for sure it has nothing to do with sex. GOD is clear in Qoran,sex with any other (except your spouse) is Zina!!
GOD bless you.
Peace. -
In a recent online discussion, I protested that Islam does not allow sex-slave. However, the following was replied to me. "Surah Al-Muminun (236) and Surah Al-Maarij (7030) both, in identical wording, draw a distinction between spouses and "those whom one's right hands possess" (female slaves), saying " " (literally, "their spouses or what their right hands possess", while clarifying that sexual intercourse with either is permissible. The purchase of female slaves for sex was lawful from the perspective of Islamic law, and this was the most common motive for the purchase of slaves throughout Islamic history."
I tried to study the tafsir of the verses but things don't look good to me. Can anyone give me a proper explanation?
Peace Jaqen Hghar -- ask them to be consistent and does it apply equally to women?
2430 say to the believers lower they of from vision/gaze theirs and guarded they of furjahum/intimate parts theirs such purest for them indeed the god aware in what working
2431 and say to the believers (f/p) lower they from vision/gaze theirs (f/p) and guarded they (f/p) furjahunna/intimate parts theirs (f/p) and not display adornment theirs (f/p) except what apparent therein and to striketh they (f/p) bikhumurihinna/with cover theirs on bosoms theirs and not display adornment theirs (f/p) except to husbands theirs or forefathers (paternal/maternal) theirs or fathers husbands theirs or sons theirs (f/p) or sons husbands theirs or brothers theirs or sons brothers theirs or sons sisters theirs (f/p) or nisihinna/womenfolk theirs (f/p i.e. female relatives) or m/what malakat/control/vouchsafe aymnuhunna/right hands theirs (f/p) or the attendants/followers other than possessors the desire from the menfolk or the young the ones not cognizant they of on private the womenfolk and not striketh they (f/p) with feet theirs to know what concealed they from adornment theirs (f/p) and turn ye of to the god all of you the believing that may you succeeding
Likewise a page from one of the earliest dated manuscripts...
https//s17.postimg.org/67xur3j4v/MA_VI_165_Quran_ch33v53-62.jpg
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Salam,
In both verses the Arabic word " " which means "or" it never means "and". There is a much difference. If you read Quran it only allow sexual intercourse with marriage which is supported by Quranic verses 43, 24, 25 and 2432. Therefore, it is a misconception that sexual intercourse with one's slave is permitted without marriage.
It is my interpretation and you don't have to agree with me.
Regards,
NK -
Salam,
In both verses the Arabic word " " which means "or" it never means "and". There is a much difference. If you read Quran it only allow sexual intercourse with marriage which is supported by Quranic verses 43, 24, 25 and 2432. Therefore, it is a misconception that sexual intercourse with one's slave is permitted without marriage.
It is my interpretation and you don't have to agree with me.
Regards,
NKNo doubt, no woman is permissible except after Nikah. " " is also used as "and/or". Or restricts the choice to either which is not the intended meaning. It is explained in the given link in my earlier post.