What is the 'Seal of Prophets' in light of the Quran?
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Peace and a good day to you all,
This is my first post on this forum, I would like to start at a verse, the verse with reference to the 'seal' of Prophets, which I understand is commonly used when explaining the finality of prophethood. It is clearly widely interpreted to mean finality among a wide variety of communities, commonly reinforced with sayings from the various books of hadith which is commonly used by many and of which I keep in mind because it has played a significant role in shaping concepts as well as rituals and also what appear to be important tradtitions which are even continued in communities that have separated from the tradition of hadith (E.g methodology of salat on the community of Submitters website I found to be very similar to the traditional salaat, I do not intend to offend anyone of any creed, just to understand the foundations of the various theories prevalent in religions). From the little Quran I have pondered on, I understand it is wise not to accept let alone promote an idea that cannot be verified. But even without external sources many who only refer to the Quran without the hadith hold this belief. This is just an idea that has baffled me, I understand the orthodox explanation has gained the understanding through the acceptance of the authenticity of specific hadith in which the Prophet Muhammed clearly asserts finality, however if these sayings are rejected as unreliable and unworthy of attention, then what else within the Quran points towards this indication and change in the system that is said not to change to support the idea of finality?
And when the seal is referred to, does it mean that the law has been completed as the verse stating that the 'path'/Islam has been perfected meaning that no further code of law is required? And if so was the law not perfected for the people of all the Prophets from Adam onwards? From my understanding the Prophets were all humble and thankful to the Most High for the blessings and had a solution and a straight path for everything, even traditional muslims hold that it is the same message. Can this mean that the verse saying the religion has been perfected be similar to the verses stating various prophets saying they were the 'first' to believe, so therefore individual to that Prophet as it was to the rest? As in an unchanging perfect eternal system of guiding man?
I am sorry I have not given out the chapter and verse numbers, I do not understand the arabic language whether modern or old and so I would appreciate if people with a deeper understanding of the language can share their understanding of the verses so that I can fill the gaps and clear any misunderstandings on my part.
I look forward to hearing from you.
Masoom
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Peace masoom,
Welcome Aboard welcomeAnd when the seal is referred to, does it mean that the law has been completed as the verse stating that the 'path'/Islam has been perfected meaning that no further code of law is required? And if so was the law not perfected for the people of all the Prophets from Adam onwards?
The answer is no...God has always perfected his deen/system/law. The problem is, when a prophet dies, people used to corrupt these laws to match their agenda. Then God sends another prophet to "correct" what was corrupted..and so on....
The same thing after after Muhammad (pbuh) died , but unfortunatly, as the quran states, he was the "khatam annabiyyine" (the seal of the prophet)
Which only means the LAST prophet and not the BEST prophet as "Muhammadans" claim. Because we are not supposed to have preferences for this or that prophet.So there will be no other prophet (hence no other book ) to guide us if follow false interpretations of the quran and the satanic innovations beside it.
And that's why we all are here (i hope), to discuss issues and to "scan" today's islamic practices to separate truth from faleshoodSalam
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Peace,
Can't a seal also be something about authenticity? just the fact that this Prophet is the real deal sort of thing? Also can it mean he's the last prophet but messengers will always come? And do all Prophets receive a code of law? Can't there be other prophets who dedicate their time and have guidance to promote what Muhammed delivered? Like the prophets that upheld the law brought by Moses or did they bring separate books or were they messengers (I understand there's a distinction)?
If the system doesn't change then isn't Muhammed the Moses of our time but for all mankind? Moses was sent to a specific people, a group and so were subsequent prophets and messengers sent to that same group, similarly would this not be done again for the whole of mankind? Maybe it's being done at such a high level there is no distinction, with so many nations, languages, cultures and the fact that the Most High sends someone to every nation could potentially mean lots of prophets, Why would G-D teach us so much about prophets, their traits, how to distinguish their legitimacy etc if this knowledge is now obsolete?
Masoom
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http//haqeeqat.org.pk/English%20Tafsir%20e%20Haqeeqat/00.Arabic%20Text/033.%20Al%20Ahzaab/Temp%2001%2033.40a.gif
Muhammad has not been the father of single one of your men but he is the Messenger of Allah and The Last/The Wrapping of the Distinct Elevated and Chosen Ones of Allah
The last two words under consideration are ]
Possessive Phrase
*** The first and the second noun worry about their own gender and plurality.
**** If the second noun is definite, the first noun derives its definiteness from the second noun.Here the second noun is definite plural. The First noun becomes definite and is therefore one of them with the distinction that he is the last one of them who has wrapped up that category of people. At other place it is mentioned that he has affirmed and sanctified all those Messengers who had come in time and space before him. All Messenger before him were allocated and sent to their respective nations and identified people. The Last is the ONLY Universal Messenger, it is his distinction which is also reflected in the aforesaid possessive phrase.
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Peace,
Thanks for the clarification, I remember roughly from reading an article on this website, that there were prophets and messengers, that some men mentioned in the Holy Quran fell in both categories while some only one. Would that mean Prophethood in Islam ended when the Prophet Muhammed left his earthly body while Messenger roles remained? If so what is their distinction in order to recognise them? If this is the case, then I would assume that a living messengers, significance is as important to us as were the role of the previous prophets and messengers because we are required to obey the messenger
Or am I missing somethings here? Did a person have to already be a prophet to be able to qualify for the role of messenger which would then imply that the Seal of Prophets ended both? Or is it the other way round? This is important because of the verse about distinction of status of prophets or is it messengers?! Clearly I have gaps in my understanding on this topic!
I think its important also because if you had to be a prophet first to be able to qualify for the role of messenger then it would mean that we are not obligated to obey another 'living man' in a divine sense after Muhammed the way people used to obey the messengers and prophets of G-d that were alive, we can contest and have a choice whereas believers have to follow and 'obey the messenger' which would only apply to other channels for divine inspiration
Also how does the verse that tells us not to make a distinction of status between messengers or is it prophets or both fit into all of this? If its prophets
Masoom
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peace
According to the context, isn't the sura talking about a prophet marrying the wife of an adopted son and so to clarify it further simply saying he is following God given law (and isn't marrying a sons wife)?
033.038
YUSUFALI There can be no difficulty to the Prophet in what Allah has indicated to him as a duty. It was the practice (approved) of Allah amongst those of old that have passed away. And the command of Allah is a decree determined.
033.039
YUSUFALI (It is the practice of those) who preach the Messages of Allah, and fear Him, and fear none but Allah. And enough is Allah to call (men) to account.
033.040
YUSUFALI Muhammad is not the father of any of your men, but (he is) the Messenger of Allah, and the Seal/OFFICIAL MARK of the Prophets and Allah has full knowledge of all things.
033.041
YUSUFALI O ye who believe! Celebrate the praises of Allah, and do this often;
033.042
YUSUFALI And glorify Him morning and evening.
033.043
YUSUFALI He it is Who sends blessings on you, as do His angels, that He may bring you out from the depths of Darkness into Light and He is Full of Mercy to the Believers.peace
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Peace,
I see, 337 does mention this, therefore on that basis are you suggesting that 3340 does not indicate that Muhammed was the last prophet? I understand that if the 'seal' is substituted for 'official mark' then Muhammed can theoretically be a universal representation of those who have played similar roles before.
Could such an important matter boil down to just the meaning of one word in this verse? Or was this 'end of prophethood' an innovation because there isn't enough to support this change? Or are we not reading correctly?! Obviously many translators are certain about this verse and the language of the Quran is very specific and clear.
Does the flexibilities of translation allow for an even wider meaning for various important words including this one, which shape important ideas and concepts in the minds of readers and students?
Masoom
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Peace,
I see, 337 does mention this, therefore on that basis are you suggesting that 3340 does not indicate that Muhammed was the last prophet? I understand that if the 'seal' is substituted for 'official mark' then Muhammed can theoretically be a universal representation of those who have played similar roles before.
Could such an important matter boil down to just the meaning of one word in this verse? Or was this 'end of prophethood' an innovation because there isn't enough to support this change? Or are we not reading correctly?! Obviously many translators are certain about this verse and the language of the Quran is very specific and clear.
Does the flexibilities of translation allow for an even wider meaning for various important words including this one, which shape important ideas and concepts in the minds of readers and students?
Masoom
It does seem simple;
If they were saying he has a step son, then to marry the step sons wife- allowed, but people will talk, so to clarify further his office is declared to everybody, to stop the talk of the town and to allow such a thing in the future -if the need be.
4034 (YA) "And to you there came joseph in times gone by, with Clear Signs, but ye ceased not to doubt of the (Mission) for which he had come At length, when he died, ye said 'No apostle will Allah send after him.' thus doth Allah leave to stray such as transgress and live in doubt,-
peace