Question to all Muslims and Quranists
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No one says or writes like this. Remove tashdeed from first Meem, and then you will find it to be two seperate delarative statemets; both two being a proven and established fact, and later declaration pronounces and helps negate any other myth to be associated with his name.
Established as, what fact? That the belief in "One who is not a deity for worship and adoration"; need to be followed by a completely unrelated statement, to be a believer. Who and how is this, established as a fact? These are facts independent of each other. But how can we justify these verses in this order? when the owner of the book did not put these two verses in this order; let alone this order of verses to be called as a first article of belief. Additionally, if repetition of a statement is an indication of emphasis; then , has been used at least three time (4157,171 and 616) verses one time use of (4829).
Badar
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If this is mentioned one time would you not consider it an established fact? .
With repscts Mazhar;
are you by any chance a Molvi, an Alim or financed by the Suadies or some other Islamic Religious organisation in some way?
Honesty is Godliness.
peace
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With repscts Mazhar;
are you by any chance a Molvi, an Alim or financed by the Suadies or some other Islamic Religious organisation in some way?
Honesty is Godliness.
peace
No one pays to the one who talks only about and from the Qur'aan. People pay only to those who tell fascinating stories under the umberalla of sanctity by calling those as hadith of the Messenger, and to those who love to treat the Messenger as an ordinary person like of themselves. One are the traditionalists and the others are so called modernists.
And anyone who "sells" the Message of Qur'aan in the way that it may give way to people to satisfy their desires will find his way into the Hell-Prison. All scholars who showed disrespect for the Messenger s.a.s. will find their abode in the Hell. Respecting and honouring the Messenger s.a.s. is the criteria for judging a person whether or not is he Mutaqee. And anyone who is not Mutaqee has to land in Hell nothwithstanding he is a Maulvi or Saudi or Quranist.
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A friend who is still struggling with meaning of , as "neither there is,nor shall be a deity for worship and adoration, save, One who, neither is, nor shall be, a deity for worship or adoration".
Asked me as if this is a complete sentence, or may it would be better explained by words before or after. Hence, I searched the great reading few times. This expression is no where to be found in Quran in this order. This likely makes it an expression that could not be attributed to Rabb. My question is whose expression is this and why? And if it not required by our Rabb, how come it became the first article of Muslim faith?
Badar
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Thanks Dear Mazhar, for your kindness. Please, share some rules of Arabic syntax that lead you to break down this verse in this order.
Badar
Translation may suffice
http//haqeeqat.org.pk/English%20Tafsir%20e%20Haqeeqat/00.Arabic%20Text/037.%20As%20Safaat/37.35.gif
Indeed they were the people who when it was said for them,
http//haqeeqat.org.pk/English%20Tafsir%20e%20Haqeeqat/00.Arabic%20Text/037.%20As%20Safaat/37.35a.gif
"there is absolutely no iela'aha except Allah"
http//haqeeqat.org.pk/English%20Tafsir%20e%20Haqeeqat/00.Arabic%20Text/037.%20As%20Safaat/27.35b.gif
they used to make themselves demonstrate arrogance of grandeur, -
Irrespective of translation original question was this
Dear all, when there is any critique about themes of Quran. Most often the defense put forward by all Muslims/scholars is that "the text should not be taken out or interpreted out of context". It should be seen in context with verses before and after. I fully understand and concur with this line of reasoning. However, my question is that why this very principle should not hold in regard to very first principle of faith of traditional Islam?
Why this text is used out of context? It is no where to be found in this order in Qur'an. Could someone give logic for this, to this illiterate?
Badar
This still remains unaddressed. Both these instance of occurance of first part of Kalma, are not the whole verses. But are expression taken out of context and put with another out of context verse to make the first article of faith. Question remains why and who did it? Can it be defended, based upon logic of not quoting verses, out of context?
Badar
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Dear all, when there is any critique about themes of Quran. Most often the defense put forward by all Muslims/scholars is that "the text should not be taken out or interpreted out of context". It should be seen in context with verses before and after. I fully understand and concur with this line of reasoning. However, my question is that why this very principle should not hold in regard to very first principle of faith of traditional Islam?
Why this text is used out of context? It is no where to be found in this order in Qur'an. Could someone give logic for this, to this illiterate?
Badar
JUST TO REMIND THIS IS THE QUERY
BADAR
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Believers pronounce the above two statements. Why?
{refer 5728]
This is the linguistic understanding of this part of 5728. Radically different from which is being questioned above.
O you sleepy inadvertent, whom ever want to be safe and secure. Be cautious of the fact that, One, is not a deity for worship and adoration. And in order to safe guard and secure yourself, come and be with the message and communication from the One and Only.
Badar