Praise Be to Muhammad rasool Allah
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It is said "Paraklytos" is actually "Muhammad" in Aramaic - the mother tongue' of Prophet Jesus
and thn read this
follow the messenger, the gentile prophet , whom they find written in their Torah and Gospel. He exhorts them to be righteous, enjoins them from evil, allows for them all good food, and prohibits that which is bad, and unloads the burdens and the shackles imposed upon them. Those who believe in him, respect him, support him, and follow the light that came with him are the successful ones 1757
Notice the words of Allah and and Praise the One whom allah has called the praise worthy, Mercy for all the worlds.
Raj again you have misunderstood, and please! answering-christianity? The online slanging match between Islam and christianity, spare me!
I am not, repeat NOT disputing that Jesus did tell of him and I am NOT disputing that he was also told about in Torah see Deut 1818, what i AM disputing is that the name Mohammed was given to him on the dy he was BORN by any other that his parents. The Praised One or The Praiser in Arabic is Muhammed/Ahmed and I am not disputing that either.
forget it raj, we are on different planes
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It is said "Paraklytos" is actually "Muhammad" in Aramaic - the mother tongue' of Prophet Jesus
and thn read this
follow the messenger, the gentile prophet , whom they find written in their Torah and Gospel. He exhorts them to be righteous, enjoins them from evil, allows for them all good food, and prohibits that which is bad, and unloads the burdens and the shackles imposed upon them. Those who believe in him, respect him, support him, and follow the light that came with him are the successful ones 1757
Notice the words of Allah and and Praise the One whom allah has called the praise worthy, Mercy for all the worlds.
raj did you happen to check the link it says this was taken from? you should
The following was taken from http//www.aramaic.org/PARAVLETE.html
Paraklytos is actually Greek
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Paraklytos is actually Greek
I think we all know that?
What you fail to understand is that, what was the Language of Issa A.S?
Greek or Aramaic?What I am trying to say is, What you have from Greek Bibles is nothing but a mere translation to what Jesus originally spoke.
Muhammad in Arabic means "praised one" or "the honored", and "Periklytos" in Greek also means "the honored" one.
now coming back to the word of Allah, which I think cannot be a lie
follow the messenger, the gentile prophet , whom they find written in their Torah and Gospel. He exhorts them to be righteous, enjoins them from evil, allows for them all good food, and prohibits that which is bad, and unloads the burdens and the shackles imposed upon them. Those who believe in him, respect him, support him, and follow the light that came with him are the successful ones 1757
and Which you completely ignored,
the real word has to be "Periklytos", in John 1416
If one has to disprove Allah's word of 1757 he or she has to disprove it from aramaic and not Greek. -
I am not, repeat NOT disputing that Jesus did tell of him and I am NOT disputing that he was also told about in Torah see Deut 1818, what i AM disputing is that the name Mohammed was given to him on the dy he was BORN by any other that his parents. The Praised One or The Praiser in Arabic is Muhammed/Ahmed and I am not disputing that either.
You are disputing! How can Jesus tell of Him many Hundred years before? if not of through Allah. Muhammad is the name of the Messanger as MAzhar has shown you, given by Allah to the pesron who carried his Message.
Ayisha
rasool is a title, and the 99 'names' of Allah are also titles, not names.
Where did you get this information from Quran? please tell me?
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3144
Muhammad is but a messenger, messengers have passed away before him. Will it be that, when he dieth or is slain, ye will turn back on your heels ? He who turneth back on his heels doth no hurt to Allah, and Allah will reward the thankful.
3340
http//www.submission.org/efarsi/arabic/Surat33_files/33_40.gifThese are evidences enough for those who believe, for Muhammad being the name given by Allah.
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Paraklytos is actually Greek
I think we all know that?
What you fail to understand is that, what was the Language of Issa A.S?
Greek or Aramaic?What I am trying to say is, What you have from Greek Bibles is nothing but a mere translation to what Jesus originally spoke.
Who mentioned Greek Bibles? ??? you are the one claiming this is Aramaic when it is Greek, Jesus didnt speak Greek.Muhammad in Arabic means "praised one" or "the honored", and "Periklytos" in Greek also means "the honored" one.
yes I know, thats what I said and Quran says 'Ahmed' and in English its 'praiser', thats what I have said and now you are trying to convince me? And Muhammed IS Arabic, 'not Muhammed in Arabic means praised one' its Muhammed in English means praised one, in Arabic it means Muhammed!now coming back to the word of Allah, which I think cannot be a lie
follow the messenger, the gentile prophet , whom they find written in their Torah and Gospel. He exhorts them to be righteous, enjoins them from evil, allows for them all good food, and prohibits that which is bad, and unloads the burdens and the shackles imposed upon them. Those who believe in him, respect him, support him, and follow the light that came with him are the successful ones 1757
and Which you completely ignored,
Who said it was a lie? i havent ignored anything nor have I said its a lie.
the real word has to be "Periklytos", in John 1416
If one has to disprove Allah's word of 1757 he or she has to disprove it from aramaic and not Greek.what is 'confused one' in Arabic i wonder?
the real word would not be Greek as Jesus (and John) both spoke ARAMAIC and not GREEK, Paraklytos is Greek and you have said yourself that the Greek translated Bible "is nothing but a mere translation to what Jesus originally spoke" so why do you assume now he suddenly slipped in a Greek word? No one is trying to disprove Allah's word, where on Gods green earth do you get that from? ??? What you need to find is the Aramaic for 'praiser' or 'praised one' if you are sticking with that.
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You are disputing! How can Jesus tell of Him many Hundred years before? if not of through Allah. Muhammad is the name of the Messanger as MAzhar has shown you, given by Allah to the pesron who carried his Message.
Jesus 'told of him' by the name of Ahmed, I am not disputing! Allah told of him i am not disputing! his name is Ahmed. Muhammed was NAMED by his parents MUHAMMED. Now unless you think God sent an angel to his mother like He did to Mary, then it was NOT known at his birth that this Muhammed was that Ahmed!Ayisha
Where did you get this information from Quran? please tell me?what information raj? that rasool is a title? or that the 'names' of Allah are also titles? The Merciful, is that a name or a title? the Judge, is that a name or a title?
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3144
Muhammad is but a messenger, messengers have passed away before him. Will it be that, when he dieth or is slain, ye will turn back on your heels ? He who turneth back on his heels doth no hurt to Allah, and Allah will reward the thankful.
3340
http//www.submission.org/efarsi/arabic/Surat33_files/33_40.gifThese are evidences enough for those who believe, for Muhammad being the name given by Allah.
Rofl, are you trying to prove his name was Muhammed? yes we already know that raj None of these verses prove that it wasnt his parents who gave him the name at birth though, they 'prove' that is his name, well done the first also proves he was but a messenger
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Please verify this for me
http//www.youtube.com/watch?v=F_ibrM_Hyeo
;D
Now search this word Raj the closest you will get is 'my beloved' and that word is in Solomons 'Song of Songs' or 'Songs of Solomon' in the bible you dont believe in because its 'been changed' laugh
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Yes, there is the Supreme Court. But a single Judge of the Superior Court cannot hear against the Judgement of a single judge of the lower court. There has to be a bench of two Judges. And interestingly there is no appeal or court where a complaint against the word of the Messenger could be filed. The word of the Messenger is the word of Allah, hence there is no contradiction; that is why it is said, "Accept the word of Allah and accept the word of the Messenger of Allah". This is because the Messenger orally and in writing narrates and communicates only the word of Allah-verbatum, syllable by syllable. Whoever accepts the word of the Messenger in fact accepts the Kalam/hadith of Allah, since hadith/kalam exists before it becomes the Qaul of the Messenger.
Mazhar salam.
Brother i don't think you are dumb enough to understand what i am trying to ask/point out, i think you are intentionally avoiding,
What i am trying to convey is ,
A judge acts as a judge ,only in jurisdiction of his court on matters which are assigned to him by his superior authorities, He does not go about acting like a judge at other places 24/7. Now can you find a similitude in God's messengers?
siki
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Mazhar salam.
Brother i don't think you are dumb enough to understand what i am trying to ask/point out, i think you are intentionally avoiding,
What i am trying to convey is ,
A judge acts as a judge ,only in jurisdiction of his court on matters which are assigned to him by his superior authorities, He does not go about acting like a judge at other places 24/7. Now can you find a similitude in God's messengers?
siki
And conversely you are not even trying to understand what I am saying. You perhaps even dont want to apply a little mind as to what a Judge means what to say of anything else. Judge does not go to other places to act like judge. Petitioners come to the judge. What I am saying is that a Judge is called and accepted as Judge all the time, twenty four hours, whether or not he is administering justice or performing/acting as judge.
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what information raj? that rasool is a title? or that the 'names' of Allah are also titles? The Merciful, is that a name or a title? the Judge, is that a name or a title?
the 99 names you mentioned.
make your mind up, Greek or Aramaic Raj? it cant be both now can it?
Don't try to make things up, ash.
What you need to find is the Aramaic for 'praiser' or 'praised one' if you are sticking with that.
That always happen, when one does not read the whole post. For that we have to go to the particular verse John 1416. as I mentioned before
And I will ask the Father, and he will give you another Counselor to be with you forever?
what i was saying is that "Periklytos" in Greek also means "the honored" one, therefore the word that was actually used had to be Periklytos in Greek translation, and not "Paracletos".
the real word would not be Greek as Jesus (and John) both spoke ARAMAIC and not GREEK,
Yes, although there are difference of opinion on this
Ibn Taymiyah and Ibn al-Qayyim were of the view that he did not speak any language other than Hebrew.
The Messiah was a Hebrew and did not speak anything but Hebrew.
the one says that the language of the Messiah was Aramaic or Greek is mistaken.and those who say he spoke aramaic have this in their favor
Among the Aramaic words attributed to the Messiah in the Gospels are
? ?Eloi, Eloi, lama sabachthani???which means, ?My God, my God, why have you forsaken me???
(Matthew 2746) -
This name in Arabic was told in Quran but Jesus didnt speak Arabic, he spoke Hebrew/Aramaic, so the word used in Hebrew/Aramaic would not be 'Ahmed' it would be the Hebrew/Aramaic for 'praiser' which has been translated as 'comforter' wrongly in English. Similarly, where Quran says in Arabic that God said such and such to Moses, or Moses asked God such and such, it would not have been said in Arabic, it would have been said in Hebrew as that was the language of Moses, but God is telling you/us about this in Arabic as Muhammed spoke Arabic, no good telling him the exact words in Hebrew really is it?
This reply is caused by simply forgetting a worldwide accepted principal that Personal Names are never translated in any other language.
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Quote
What you need to find is the Aramaic for 'praiser' or 'praised one' if you are sticking with that.Quoted
Of special interest always is what the name for Muhammad was in his mother tongue, Palestinian Aramaic. For this we have to look to the Hebrew and Aramaic scriptures. According to the present day Aramaic scriptures, the word for Muhammad would read "Paraqleyta" or "Paraklytos" in Greek and "Menahem" in Hebrew! In the ancient Aramaic scriptures, before these changes, it read "Ahmad," then Munahammana" which is the Aramaic/Syriac rendering for the name "Muhammad." These are names, not simply words, and they mean "Comforter" or "Muhammad" in Arabic. -
what information raj? that rasool is a title? or that the 'names' of Allah are also titles? The Merciful, is that a name or a title? the Judge, is that a name or a title?
the 99 names you mentioned.
Is The Merciful, Allah's name? Is The Compassionate Allah's name? or are they titles?
make your mind up, Greek or Aramaic Raj? it cant be both now can it?
Don't try to make things up, ash.
Not making anything up raj, its there in black and white you claimed Paraklytos was in Aramaic the mother tongue of Jesus then you said you knew it was Greek. So which is it today?
What you need to find is the Aramaic for 'praiser' or 'praised one' if you are sticking with that.
That always happen, when one does not read the whole post. For that we have to go to the particular verse John 1416. as I mentioned before
And I will ask the Father, and he will give you another Counselor to be with you forever?
what i was saying is that "Periklytos" in Greek also means "the honored" one, therefore the word that was actually used had to be Periklytos in Greek translation, and not "Paracletos".
the particular spelling of the word is irrelevant raj, why does it have to be paraklytos (greek) when Jesus and John spoke Aramaic?the real word would not be Greek as Jesus (and John) both spoke ARAMAIC and not GREEK,
Yes, although there are difference of opinion on this
Ibn Taymiyah and Ibn al-Qayyim were of the view that he did not speak any language other than Hebrew.
The Messiah was a Hebrew and did not speak anything but Hebrew.
the one says that the language of the Messiah was Aramaic or Greek is mistaken.
ok so why would he still say a Greek word if he spoke Hebrew?and those who say he spoke aramaic have this in their favor
Among the Aramaic words attributed to the Messiah in the Gospels are
? ?Eloi, Eloi, lama sabachthani???which means, ?My God, my God, why have you forsaken me???
(Matthew 2746)So do we conclude Jesus spoke Hebrew and Aramaic and that Parklytos, whichever spelling, is Greek? And that Paraklytos means 'comforter' in English? and that the word you to cheerfully delighted in showing us earlier as the name 'Muhammed' in Hebrew cannot be the Parklytos Greek word?
FYI
There were/are different forms of Hebrew, Jesus spoke primarily Aramaic and some Hebrew and it is possible that considering where he lived he may have spoken a little Greek as the Roman Empire were Greek speaking. The Greek NT 'original' documents are believed to be 4th century and Paul's stuff was in Greek for the Greek audience. It is still debated that the original texts were in Aramaic and translated to Greek. The oldest copy of the Bible known so far is the Codex Sinaiticus which dates back to 4th century and is in Greek, but that doesnt mean the original text was in Greek.Have a look for yourself http//codexsinaiticus.org/en/
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Quoted
Of special interest always is what the name for Muhammad was in his mother tongue, Palestinian Aramaic. For this we have to look to the Hebrew and Aramaic scriptures. According to the present day Aramaic scriptures, the word for Muhammad would read "Paraqleyta" or "Paraklytos" in Greek and "Menahem" in Hebrew! In the ancient Aramaic scriptures, before these changes, it read "Ahmad," then Munahammana" which is the Aramaic/Syriac rendering for the name "Muhammad." These are names, not simply words, and they mean "Comforter" or "Muhammad" in Arabic.I did say spare me the online slanging site raj