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  4. Wouldn't the transmition of how to pray be acurate

Wouldn't the transmition of how to pray be acurate

Scheduled Pinned Locked Moved Salat & Zakat
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  • U Offline
    U Offline
    unknownuser
    wrote on last edited by
    #1

    I was just wandering. I mean so many people would have prayed at the time of prophets death and afterwards that how to pray as a result of it would seem to have been taught corectly 200 years on till Bukhari came.

    Or since the ritualistic traditional prayer is not as it is in the Quran, is it to be rejected as I supose most of us do?

    Any thoughts?

    Thanks

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    • M Offline
      M Offline
      mmkhan
      wrote on last edited by
      #2

      Salaaman Pel,

      I was just wandering. I mean so many people would have prayed at the time of prophets death and afterwards that how to pray as a result of it would seem to have been taught corectly 200 years on till Bukhari came.

      Or since the ritualistic traditional prayer is not as it is in the Quran, is it to be rejected as I supose most of us do?

      Any thoughts?

      Thanks

      You yourself answered your question bro. IF it was the case as your point no.1 then it would have surely tally with AlQuraan.

      Do you know that Saudi government if formed ONLY 80 years back? Why did they fight and captured Makkah if everybody was following the true religion? They think that they were not Muslims so they fought and captured, and same thing happened before them so many times.

      May Allah guide us all to His path pr
      Mohammed M. Khan

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      • WakasW Offline
        WakasW Offline
        Wakas
        wrote on last edited by
        #3

        If you read early sources they show huge variance in ritual prayer.

        All information is correct to the best of my knowledge only and thus should not be taken as a fact. One should always seek knowledge and verify for themselves when possible: 17:36, 20:114, 35:28, 49:6, 58:11.

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        • H Offline
          H Offline
          herbman
          wrote on last edited by
          #4

          I was just wandering. I mean so many people would have prayed at the time of prophets death and afterwards that how to pray as a result of it would seem to have been taught corectly 200 years on till Bukhari came.

          Or since the ritualistic traditional prayer is not as it is in the Quran, is it to be rejected as I supose most of us do?

          Any thoughts?

          Thanks

          Peace,

          If you search how religions were made e.g. christianism, sunnism etc, you will see people usually tend to invent lies to "unite" the mass. In the christianism for example you see many tentatives were made to start with a dogma like

          • first try Jesus was God incarned
          • second try then he was the Unique son of God
          • third try He was the son incarned
            etcd etc
            to finish with a Trinity in the Nice council.

          Same with sunnism, when people could not understand something like "salat" then better to give an answer to people, adding to that the already "polytheist" background people had at that time, maybe the way "salat" is made today is even older than Islam that came with Quran.

          Finally I came to the conclusion, ask God, as simple as that. Why you ask people?

          You opened a thread This could be the answer of your question

          http//free-minds.org/forum/index.php?topic=9602079.msg272956;topicseen#msg272956

          Peace

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          • E Offline
            E Offline
            No longer a Sunna-rejecter
            wrote on last edited by
            #5

            Think Wouldn't the transmission of the belief in strict monotheism be successful? Wouldn't the transmission of the dietary laws be successful?

            I am no longer a Sunna-rejecter. See 4:59-65, 62:2-4, 3:31, 4:156, 7:157 Messenger teaches and is to be followed and obeyed. Examples of revelation received which is not in the Qur'an: 3:123-126, 33:37, 2:187, 66:3, 62:9.

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