53:15 Did Muhammed go up to heaven?
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Quote from Mazhar on Yesterday at 014028 AM
"The Garden of Abode" and gardens on right and left of their dwelling is not one and the same thing. Is it not so apparent from your quote? And one does not "descend" from a place at ground level.The main thing is maawa, it means the shelter, or living place , paradise, hell or home or any place
Did He not find you an orphan and sheltered you?
what i meant is, it sounds like the garden of the hearafter, the next world, but how can the prophet see the garden of the next world, while this world is still exist ? remember, the earth will be a different earth.
On the day when the earth will be changed to other than the earth, and the heavens (also will be changed) and they will come forth unto Allah, the One, the Almighty 1448
So , it sounds to me more like the house where he dwell in his lifetime
You are perceiving this, red quote, because you are overlooking the context of the said word- hinted by me "And one does not "descend" from a place at ground level".
How can you perceive the aforesaid conclusion from these Arabic quotes?
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So from these verses, does that mean he saw the heaven we wil InshaAllah be goin to?
In fact, 5315 refers to an average garden which surrounded and bordered with trees, rather than Heaven/Paradise of Herafter. We can admit that there is no any mention for Heaven/Paradise in chapter 53. But there is an extraordinary experiment which happened out of the World, also.
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Salaam Mazhar,
I already read your post and I have already responded to it. But seems you like to repeat the same things again and again.
I did not find my answer in the references given. Please make it clear as you claim. Please don't try to twist or add in Allah's word.
May Allah guide us all towards the truth pr
Mohammed M. Khanmmkhan's approach is the right one in my opinion.
Actually, lots of traditionalist interpreters can't feel comfort with chapter 53. Because there are a lot of questions related with it which requiring clear and absolute answers. One of the serious questions is, actually there is NO strong evidence for clarifying that Mohammad is the one who mentioned there.
In my opinion, most important question is 5318. Traditionalist interpreters translate this verse as
"He saw one/some of the greatest signs of his Lord" which is way wrong.
The verse clearly says
"Indeed, he saw THE GREATEST OF THE signs of his Lord" (531
In this case, there should be an answer for "What is The Greatest one?" in particular, but there is no answer by anyone including Mohammad himself. Thus, interpreters and scholars choose "one of the greatest" or "(some of) greatest signs" as translation and covering the uncomfortable truth.
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In my opinion, most important question is 5318. Traditionalist interpreters translate this verse as
"He saw one/some of the greatest signs of his Lord" which is way wrong.
The verse clearly says
"Indeed, he saw THE GREATEST OF THE signs of his Lord" (531
In this case, there should be an answer for "What is The Greatest one?" in particular, but there is no answer by anyone including Mohammad himself. Thus, interpreters and scholars choose "one of the greatest" or "(some of) greatest signs" as translation and covering the uncomfortable truth.
Did you try to know what is the signification of preposition "Min" before passing the above judgment?
And do you know the relationship of various elements of the sentence? Or even do you know the case ending of word "Alkubra"?
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One of the serious questions is, actually there is NO strong evidence for clarifying that Mohammad is the one who mentioned there.
It shows that basics of any language are not being kept in mind what to say of Arabic. Every pronoun denotes and refers to a specific person, in the context.
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Did you try to know what is the signification of preposition "Min" before passing the above judgment?
And do you know the relationship of various elements of the sentence? Or even do you know the case ending of word "Alkubra"?
Yes I did/know. What about you?
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It shows that basics of any language are not being kept in mind what to say of Arabic. Every pronoun denotes and refers to a specific person, in the context.
I'm not about to declining that there is a specific person, actually there is. But we have NO strong evidence for proving that specific person is Mohammad.. is it clear now?
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I'm not about to declining that there is a specific person, actually there is. But we have NO strong evidence for proving that specific person is Mohammad.. is it clear now?
It is like saying that in there is no strong evidence for proving that exodus is included in
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Can anyone refer me to someone with knowledge? I realy dnt understand much of wat has been said... I dnt no Arabic Eitha which makes it a little more difficult to no ur arguments