(For Arabic Speakers) Question about Slave Girls
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http//corpus.quran.com/qurandictionary.jsp?root=ftw#%2842515%29
Does the word fataytikum have to mean "slave" girls? Can it simply mean "girls" or something else? I just want to know if "slave girls" is the correct technical meaning or if it is a derived meaning.
Peace and thanks.
it doesn't mean a girl nor a slave girl, but an employee
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AFAIk it means young girls, i've never heard it to mean employee. so yes it could mean girls.
in terms of quranic wife meanin? um.. zawjin? imra'atin? i dont know if there is "most accurate" conclusion of one.
would need to check all the "wife references" and see what is most common,accurate etc..
hope that helped
salam
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Salam and Peace!
EDIT
I have one more question What is the most accurate definition of "wife" that can be derived from the Qur'an?
In your real life, what does your "wife" mean to you.
So a "wife" is that.Al-Quran also means that,---in my understanding.
A man is incomplete without a woman.
A woman is incomplete without a man.Man is a supplement to the woman.
Woman is a supplement to the man.When they come together and supplement each other, they bear fruit.
A wife is also a life-partner.
Your life-partner is not your mother, father, brother, sister, daughter, or anyone else,----but the woman you marry.She is your better half. She is your life-partner. She is your supplement.
She is your wife.And most importantly,---she is absolutely equal to you in status, importance, witness, iman, deeds, etc.
There was one thing in the beginning. Allah made it two. One is man. The other one is woman.
According to Al-Quran
Man and woman are equal. Companions.-----A husband is a servant to his wife, and a wife is obedient to her husband.-----No one is a master.-----One is servant, and the other is obedient. -
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http//corpus.quran.com/qurandictionary.jsp?root=ftw#%2842515%29
Does the word fataytikum have to mean "slave" girls? Can it simply mean "girls" or something else? I just want to know if "slave girls" is the correct technical meaning or if it is a derived meaning.
Fatayatkum, can be slave girls, if they are from Ma Malakat Amnakum, like what is being referred to in 4-25. But a simple " Fatayatkum" would mean young girls under one's influence, it has subordinate connotation too. "young girls under your control"
I have one more question What is the most accurate definition of "wife" that can be derived from the Qur'an?
Quranic equvilant of the english term Wife, are the women being refereed in quran, as the ones who are bonded with you under a specific contract " known as Nekah" ONLY.
siki
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Thankyou all responders. To me it makes no difference if it is "slave" or "employee" because I am looking only for the possessive connotation. Also I was enquiring about the definition of "wife" as in the definition of "marriage".
Fatayatkum, can be slave girls, if they are from Ma Malakat Amnakum, like what is being referred to in 4-25. But a simple " Fatayatkum" would mean young girls under one's influence, it has subordinate connotation too. "young girls under your control"
Quranic equvilant of the english term Wife, are the women being refereed in quran, as the ones who are bonded with you under a specific contract " known as Nekah" ONLY.
siki
Is is therefore reasonable for me to say (as I did in the "ma malakat aymanukum" thread)
"From 425 we deduce
One can marry their believing slave-girls (with permission of their family/master). Again, those whom one?s right hand possesses are not necessarily slave/servant-girls since the Qur?an says ??of those whom your right hands possess of your slave/servant-girls (if ?those whom one?s right hand possesses? always meant ?slaves?/?servants, then the meaning of ?slave?/?servant? would be redundant)."?
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I am reading 3350
?O Prophet! surely We have made lawful to you your wives whom you have given their dowries, and those whom your right hand possesses out of those whom Allah has given to you , and the daughters of your paternal uncles and the daughters of your paternal aunts, and the daughters of your maternal uncles and the daughters of your maternal aunts who fled with you; and a believing woman if she gave herself to the Prophet, if the Prophet desired to marry her-- specially for you, not for the (rest of) believers; We know what We have ordained for them concerning their wives and those whom their right hands possess in order that no blame may attach to you; and Allah is Forgiving, Merciful.?
Qur?an 3350
Is this verse talking about sex? If it is talking about marriage, why would it say that his wives (to whom he has already paid dowry!) are lawful to marry? The context does not change through the verse so is it saying that Muhammad (SAW) can fornicate with the above-mentioned folk? Other Muslims are excluded, although they can obviously lay with their wives (as covered by the last sentence).
Peace.
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Again, those whom one?s right hand possesses are not necessarily slave/servant-girls since the Qur?an says ??of those whom your right hands possess of your slave/servant-girls (if ?those whom one?s right hand possesses? always meant ?slaves?/?servants, then the meaning of ?slave?/?servant? would be redundant)."?
kindly elaborate your point
siki
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I am reading 3350
?O Prophet! surely We have made lawful to you your wives whom you have given their dowries, and those whom your right hand possesses out of those whom Allah has given to you , and the daughters of your paternal uncles and the daughters of your paternal aunts, and the daughters of your maternal uncles and the daughters of your maternal aunts who fled with you; and a believing woman if she gave herself to the Prophet, if the Prophet desired to marry her-- specially for you, not for the (rest of) believers; We know what We have ordained for them concerning their wives and those whom their right hands possess in order that no blame may attach to you; and Allah is Forgiving, Merciful.?
Qur?an 3350
Is this verse talking about sex? If it is talking about marriage, why would it say that his wives (to whom he has already paid dowry!) are lawful to marry? The context does not change through the verse so is it saying that Muhammad (SAW) can fornicate with the above-mentioned folk? Other Muslims are excluded, although they can obviously lay with their wives (as covered by the last sentence).
Peace.
Zoaj or Azwaj is not an equivalent to English term wife, one can say it is closer to the term, " Couple" when used for two individuals who are bonded as a pair and sex being a definite part of the liaison.
English term fornicate is probably used for illegal sex, so in my opinion your use of the term above for prophet is wrong, cause the sex here is legal, according to God's rules, only the type of bond is different, and hence is being governed by different set of rules.
siki
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I am reading 3350
O Prophet! surely We have made lawful to you your wives whom you have given their dowries, and those whom your right hand possesses out of those whom Allah has given to you , and the daughters of your paternal uncles and the daughters of your paternal aunts, and the daughters of your maternal uncles and the daughters of your maternal aunts who fled with you; and a believing woman if she gave herself to the Prophet, if the Prophet desired to marry her-- specially for you, not for the (rest of) believers; We know what We have ordained for them concerning their wives and those whom their right hands possess in order that no blame may attach to you; and Allah is Forgiving, Merciful.
Quran 3350
Is this verse talking about sex? If it is talking about marriage, why would it say that his wives (to whom he has already paid dowry!) are lawful to marry? The context does not change through the verse so is it saying that Muhammad (SAW) can fornicate with the above-mentioned folk? Other Muslims are excluded, although they can obviously lay with their wives (as covered by the last sentence).
Peace.The command is not nabi specific and hence is applicable for everyone, however accepting a woman with forfeiture of wage is Nabi specific.
The thing to note in this aya is " cousin marriage was allowed " That means , it was banned previously, word immigration tells us that it was probably allowed due to scarcity of believing women, however this was not banned later, and also , these women are not part of the 14 Haram women listed in 4-22.23
So, I would deduce ,
Cousin marriage should be avoided , but is not Haram.
siki
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Does the word fataytikum have to mean "slave" girls? Can it simply mean "girls" or something else? I just want to know if "slave girls" is the correct technical meaning or if it is a derived meaning.
Peace and thanks.
Salaam
Brother before analyzing the word, will you please let us know, why does this translation "Slave girl" looks odd to you? because this answer may lead you to the answer of your actual question.You may get confused by different answers by our "Scholars" here,
The history and the Hadith material shows us that "Slave Girls" existed.I know this would flare up many, but be patient, read twice what I said and then respond, Thanks.
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Scroll to the bottom of this page
http//corpus.quran.com/qurandictionary.jsp?root=ftw#%2842515%29
Does the word fataytikum have to mean "slave" girls? Can it simply mean "girls" or something else? I just want to know if "slave girls" is the correct technical meaning or if it is a derived meaning.
Peace and thanks.
EDIT
I have one more question What is the most accurate definition of "wife" that can be derived from the Qur'an?
concubines?
Among the Israelites, it was common for men to acknowledge their concubines, and such women enjoyed the same rights in the house as legitimate wives. The principal difference in the Bible between a wife and a concubine is that wives had dowries, while concubines did not.
The concubine commanded the same respect and inviolability as the wife. The man to whom she belonged was dishonoured if other men lay hands on her. For instance, David is portrayed as having been dishonoured when his concubines had a sexual relationship with his son Absalom.
Since it was regarded as the highest blessing to have many children, while the greatest curse was childlessness, legitimate wives often gave their maids to their husbands to atone, at least in part, for their own barrenness, as in the cases of Sarah and Hagar, Leah and Zilpah, Rachel and Bilhah. The children of the concubine had equal rights with those of the legitimate wife; for example, King Abimelech was the son of Gideon and his concubine. Later biblical figures such as Gideon, David, and Solomon had concubines in addition to many childbearing wives. For example, the Books of Kings says that Solomon had 700 wives and 300 concubines.
In Judaism, concubines are referred to by the Hebrew term pilegesh. This is etymologically related to the Aramaic phrase palga isha, meaning half-wife. A cognate term later appeared in Greek as the loan word pallax/pallakis.
According to the Babylonian Talmud, the difference between a concubine and a full wife was that the latter received a marriage contract (Hebrewketubah) and her marriage (nissu'in) was preceded by a formal betrothal (erusin), neither being the case for a concubine. However, one opinion in the Jerusalem Talmud argues that the concubine should also receive a marriage contract, but without including a clause specifying a divorce settlement.
http//en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Concubinage#In_Judaism
This makes sense and thats why the Koran uses oath since thats what the marriage depended on with a concubinem since no dowry hence the term "right hand posseses".
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Dr Shabbir of www.ourbeacon.com translates 3350 as
O Prophet! Behold, We have made lawful to you your wives to whom you have given the marital gift, and those women who have sought asylum with you and signed the marital contract (610). Also lawful for you in marriage were daughters of your paternal uncles and aunts, and the daughters of your maternal uncles and aunts who had migrated with you. And lawful for you is a believing woman who offers herself freely to the Prophet and whom the Prophet might be willing to wed. This latter is but a privilege for you, and not for other believers. We have already made known what We have decreed regarding their wives and women who have sought asylum in their homes. This arrangement is designed to ease any social difficulties on you (O Prophet, as the Head of the State). Allah is Absolver of imperfections, Merciful.
From the above it seems that the Messenger was exempted from arranging for a marital gift in case a woman offers herself to him for marriage.
A confusion is over what some translators have termed "slave girls from captives of war". According to verse 474 captives of war have to be released after the war is over or exchanged for Muslim captives. Are we reading into the Qur'an fabrications here??
Thanks.
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According to verse 474 captives of war have to be released after the war is over or exchanged for Muslim captives. Are we reading into the Qur'an fabrications here??
please re-read 474 once more.
And try to understand that SLAVES were not only from wars, the slavery was existing in that culture and it existed till a century ago.
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please re-read 474 once more.
And try to understand that SLAVES were not only from wars, the slavery was existing in that culture and it existed till a century ago.
Here are two translations (although, history shows primary source of slaves were prisoners of war - please google it - people just did not sell themselves to the highest bidder!!)
474 So, if you encounter those who have rejected, then strike their formations until you overcome them, then bind them securely. You may either set them free or ransom them, until the war ends. And had God willed, He alone could have beaten them, but He thus tests you by one another. As for those who get killed in the cause of God, He will never let their deeds be put to waste.
Now if you meet the disbelievers in battle, strike at their command centers. When you have subdued them, bind in a firm bond, and thereafter an act of kindness or ransom till the battle lays down its weapons. (Free the captives as an act of kindness or ransom, such as in exchange for your men in their captivity. There is no third option). And if Allah willed, He could indeed punish them Himself, but that He may let you humans test one by means of another (as to which nation remains vigilant). And, as for those who are slain in the Cause of Allah, He will never let their actions be lost.
The above clearly shows what to do with prisoner of wars. Their women are not to be taken as captives and given in marriage. So the possibility of Muhammad (S) marrying captives women of war should not arise. However, we find some translations as follows
3350 O PROPHET! Behold, We have made lawful to thee thy wives unto whom thou hast paid their dowers, as well as those whom thy right hand has come to possess from among the captives of war whom God has bestowed upon thee. And the daughters of thy paternal uncles and aunts, and the daughters of thy maternal uncles and aunts, who have migrated with thee ; and any believing woman who offers herself freely to the Prophet and whom the Prophet might be willing to wed a privilege for thee, and not for other believers - We have already made known what We have enjoined upon them with regard to their wives and those whom their right hands may possess. in order that thou be not burdened with anxiety - for God is indeed much-forgiving, a dispenser of grace ?
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Here are two translations (although, history shows primary source of slaves were prisoners of war - please google it - people just did not sell themselves to the highest bidder!!)
474 So, if you encounter those who have rejected, then strike their formations until you overcome them, then bind them securely. You may either set them free or ransom them, until the war ends. And had God willed, He alone could have beaten them, but He thus tests you by one another. As for those who get killed in the cause of God, He will never let their deeds be put to waste.
Now if you meet the disbelievers in battle, strike at their command centers. When you have subdued them, bind in a firm bond, and thereafter an act of kindness or ransom till the battle lays down its weapons. (Free the captives as an act of kindness or ransom, such as in exchange for your men in their captivity. There is no third option). And if Allah willed, He could indeed punish them Himself, but that He may let you humans test one by means of another (as to which nation remains vigilant). And, as for those who are slain in the Cause of Allah, He will never let their actions be lost.
The above clearly shows what to do with prisoner of wars. Their women are not to be taken as captives and given in marriage. So the possibility of Muhammad (S) marrying captives women of war should not arise. However, we find some translations as follows
3350 O PROPHET! Behold, We have made lawful to thee thy wives unto whom thou hast paid their dowers, as well as those whom thy right hand has come to possess from among the captives of war whom God has bestowed upon thee. And the daughters of thy paternal uncles and aunts, and the daughters of thy maternal uncles and aunts, who have migrated with thee ; and any believing woman who offers herself freely to the Prophet and whom the Prophet might be willing to wed a privilege for thee, and not for other believers - We have already made known what We have enjoined upon them with regard to their wives and those whom their right hands may possess. in order that thou be not burdened with anxiety - for God is indeed much-forgiving, a dispenser of grace ?
The last translation by Assad is not a translation of the text but an interpretation. The Koran does not say that. It says
"thy right hand has come to possess from whom God has bestowed upon thee".
Thats what the text says. Its best to rely on Yusuf Ali's translation as he places those kinds of additions in brackets. Thats a Sunni interpretation and not a proper translation. Translation is supposed to translate a text as it is and not to try to interpret what a text is supposed to mean.
Captives of war in the Koran have two options and not four as Sunnis say. The issue of slavery has been addressed in the Koran when Moses accused the Pharoah of enslaving the Israelites. Why would Moses accuse the Pharoah of such a thing if there was nothing wrong with it?
26.22. "And this is the favour with which thou dost reproach me,- that thou hast enslaved the Children of Israel!"
