Days of the Week

unknownuser

Peace and salutations to all )

Does anyone have any idea what the days of the week used to be called during the time that the Quran was revealed??

I'm sure they had a 7-day week system, as we all do know, but what names did the Arabs give each of these 7 days?

I mean if we could actually prove that there was no such name as "jumu3a" back then, the whole theory of Friday prayer will go straight down the drain..

GODsubmitter

Here is an article that gives a different perspective on Hijra calendar and calculation of days etc.

http//www.aididsafar.com/hijrah.html

youssef4342

Peace everyone peace
A point to be said is that there has to be 7 days in a week, in order to conform with the sabbath.
The Almighty did indeed create the heavens/earth and what's in between in 6 days, and then he obviously stopped after the 6th day. This is where the sabbath is stipulated from, because the Almighty finished/stopped working on his creation after the 6th day.

abuamrrami

Salam yossef,

yawm is not in anyway a "day", yawm in quran means a period/phase/time.

The creation of the universe didn't happen in 6/7 earthly days, how was day one and day two counted when the sun and earth weren't even created yet. ( earth has to orbit the sun for 24 hours).

This is why quran reminds us in several places that God days are different than our days in several places ( check 325, 704....)

In fact time concept doesn't even apply to God, God created time.

Peace

Peace everyone peace
A point to be said is that there has to be 7 days in a week, in order to conform with the sabbath.
The Almighty did indeed create the heavens/earth and what's in between in 6 days, and then he obviously stopped after the 6th day. This is where the sabbath is stipulated from, because the Almighty finished/stopped working on his creation after the 6th day.

youssef4342

Salam yossef,
yawm is not in anyway a "day", yawm in quran means a period/phase/time.
The creation of the universe didn't happen in 6/7 earthly days, how was day one and day two counted when the sun and earth weren't even created yet. ( earth has to orbit the sun for 24 hours).
This is why quran reminds us in several places that God days are different than our days in several places ( check 325, 704....)
In fact time concept doesn't even apply to God, God created time.

Peace

Peace abuamrrami peace
I think you have misunderstood what i meant. Yes God Almighty indeed created the Heaven/Earth/What's in between Complex in 6 Days (i.e 6 Heavenly days = 6,000) years (this is not accounting the fact of the time that it took between the initial place of the start of creation(i.e where it first took place), and the expansion of it, since the universe is expanding (5147), this might explain why the universe is not just 6,000 years, but billions of years old. (meaning you have to account for the initial 6,000 years of creation AND the time of the expansion of the creation).

Now this "6 days", which are really 6,000 years, are "translated" in our humanly terms as 6 days. Now if you look in the bible you will see that God Almighty "instructs" the children of Israel to work on 6 days, and stop working on the 7th, just like he did work 6 "days" (i.e day=time period), and stoped on the 7th. This is called the Sabbath day.
Now if you look in the Quran, God Almighty cites to us the Sabbath as well. This would mean that OUR numbering of DAYS (i.e day= time period/cycle) would be confirmed as 7 days per cycle (week).
Otherwise, what is the Sabbath? How did people transgress the sabbath in 4154 and how did they transgress the sabbath by going fishing (i.e work) in 7163?
We cannot totaly disbelieve in the Previous sciptures when God Almighty states to believe in them (4136)
peace

abuamrrami

-Peace brother youssef,

actually in Quran Allah "swt" chastises the jews for inventing the concept of Sabath, in Quran Allah tells us repeatedly that jews where punished for inventing Sabath ( and not for not observing sabath).

Many muslims believe that Jews were punished for not observing Sabath, but it is quite the contrary they were punished for inventing the concept of Sabath.

Check this thread http//free-minds.org/forum/index.php?topic=12139.40

Peace all,

Thank brothers Kyle and Arnold for your kind comments and for appreciating the amazing logic of the passages.

This is a corrupted translation that has been twisted perhaps to justify the Jewish claim that The God decreed a day of rest. The word "desecrated" doesn't occur in the passage at all. The exact word is "as7ab"/ which literally means "companions/owners". So those who are cursed are those who are companions/owners of the day of rest (i.e., those who observe it) NOT those who "desecrated" it! This corrupt translation has twisted the meaning around and made it the exact opposite of what the passage is actually saying.

Again, the word "desecrated" doesn't occur at all in the passage. A better translation is as follows

Ask them concerning the town present by the sea when they transgressed in the matter of the day of rest. When on the day they are resting, their fish come to them openly near the shore and on the day that they are not resting, they came not. Thus We made a trial of them because of what they were transgressing.

Here are the points that can be easily seen from 7163

Those people were ACTUALLY observing the day of rest and on that day where they actually rested (for example, Saturday in the case of Jews) the fish would come to them.
On the other days where they didn't rest (the other days of the week), the fish wouldn't come.
(1) and (2) was how THEY WERE PUNISHED. So clearly they were punished by not getting any fish. This is the only punishment possible in the passage. The only way that this punishment would occur is if they actually OBSERVED the day of rest. In fact, had they "desecrated" the day of rest then they would get all the fish and that would be a good thing for them NOT punishment.
We are told that this punishment is a result of what they were transgressing. Now notice here the perfect tense to denote something that they actually did. The only thing that they did in the passage is that they rested on a certain day.
Given the above, there can be only one possibility, which is that the transgression in the day of rest is in the observing of the day of rest.

So what it is that makes it a transgression? In Arabic, the person who acts the verb of "ya3doo" or the action of "3idwan" is called "3adow". This word "3adow" is used in 6112 to describe those who invent lies. So the transgression is in inventing the lie that The God ordered us to rest on a certain arbitrary day of the arbitrary man-made week. So you can rest and take any day or two off but don't say that this is decreed by The God!

The only way that people will not differ on a day of rest is if they didn't take it as a "Holy-day". So for me, I couldn't care less if suddenly the government changes the weekend so that it is now Monday and Tuesday. However, in Muslim countries, sectarians will riot in support of Friday and in Christian countries, Trinitarians will boycott this government and stage sit-ins and demonstrations and in Israel, the government would fall the next day. In fact, it is so important to Christians that when the calendar was changed from the Julian to the Gregorian, ten days were taken out but the days of the week were kept in sequence because they thought that this way their "Holy-day" wouldn't get messed up.

It is not "when yaumu-sabt was going on" it is "when on the day they are resting". This is a big difference. In your statement they are passive and in the actual statement from the great reading they are actually doing the action of resting. It is a big difference because this indisputably shows that they were actually OBSERVING the day of rest and NOT "desecrating" it as the corrupt translations claim. So this is their transgression that they were being punished for. In fact, they should have "desecrated" this man-made day of rest and in this case they would not have been punished and they would have got all the fish.

Peace,

Ayman

Sabath was created by Jews and god has nothing to do with it.

Peace abuamrrami peace
I think you have misunderstood what i meant. Yes God Almighty indeed created the Heaven/Earth/What's in between Complex in 6 Days (i.e 6 Heavenly days = 6,000) years (this is not accounting the fact of the time that it took between the initial place of the start of creation(i.e where it first took place), and the expansion of it, since the universe is expanding (5147), this might explain why the universe is not just 6,000 years, but billions of years old. (meaning you have to account for the initial 6,000 years of creation AND the time of the expansion of the creation).

Now this "6 days", which are really 6,000 years, are "translated" in our humanly terms as 6 days. Now if you look in the bible you will see that God Almighty "instructs" the children of Israel to work on 6 days, and stop working on the 7th, just like he did work 6 "days" (i.e day=time period), and stoped on the 7th. This is called the Sabbath day.
Now if you look in the Quran, God Almighty cites to us the Sabbath as well. This would mean that OUR numbering of DAYS (i.e day= time period/cycle) would be confirmed as 7 days per cycle (week).
Otherwise, what is the Sabbath? How did people transgress the sabbath in 4154 and how did they transgress the sabbath by going fishing (i.e work) in 7163?
We cannot totaly disbelieve in the Previous sciptures when God Almighty states to believe in them (4136)
peace

youssef4342

Peace abuamrrami peace
I would have to kindly disagree. The auther's claim are brought up by one verse, while in others verses, there is a clear stipulation to the children of Israel, as to NOT desecrate the Sabbath

And we raised Mount Sinai above them, as we took their covenant. And we said to them, "Enter the gate humbly." And we said to them, "Do not desecrate the Sabbath." Indeed, we took from them a solemn covenant.(4154)

"The Sabbath was decreed only for those who ended up disputing it (Jews & Christians). Your Lord is the One who will judge them on the Day of Resurrection regarding their disputes. (16124)

**** Notice that 1) "not desecrating" the Sabbath was one of the Covenents (This is confirmed, as it is one of the 10 original Commandments) 2) God Almighty only stipulates the Sabbath on those who disputed it (e.g christians & Jews) (i.e and not on us)

abuamrrami

Peace Youssef,

I believe the translation you provided is not accurate

And we raised Mount Sinai above them, as we took their covenant. And we said to them, "Enter the gate humbly." And we said to them, "Do not desecrate the Sabbath." Indeed, we took from them a solemn covenant.(4154)

It should translate and we said to them don't transgress in the matter of Sabbath translating it to do not desecrate the sabbath is wrong.

If you say in Arabic it should translate " And we said to them don't transgress in this matter", but if you use the logic in translation you posted it should be like " Don't desecrate this matter".

the word desecrate is simply not there, means transgress.

Now can you please explain why God punished the jews for observing sabbath in verse 7163

Ask them concerning the town present by the sea when they transgressed in the matter of the day of rest. When on the day they are resting, their fish come to them openly near the shore and on the day that they are not resting, they came not. Thus We made a trial of them because of what they were transgressing.

Quoted from brother Ayman

Here are the points that can be easily seen from 7163

Those people were ACTUALLY observing the day of rest and on that day where they actually rested (for example, Saturday in the case of Jews) the fish would come to them.
On the other days where they didn't rest (the other days of the week), the fish wouldn't come.
(1) and (2) was how THEY WERE PUNISHED. So clearly they were punished by not getting any fish. This is the only punishment possible in the passage. The only way that this punishment would occur is if they actually OBSERVED the day of rest. In fact, had they "desecrated" the day of rest then they would get all the fish and that would be a good thing for them NOT punishment.
We are told that this punishment is a result of what they were transgressing. Now notice here the perfect tense to denote something that they actually did. The only thing that they did in the passage is that they rested on a certain day.
Given the above, there can be only one possibility, which is that the transgression in the day of rest is in the observing of the day of rest.

So what it is that makes it a transgression? In Arabic, the person who acts the verb of "ya3doo" or the action of "3idwan" is called "3adow". This word "3adow" is used in 6112 to describe those who invent lies. So the transgression is in inventing the lie that The God ordered us to rest on a certain arbitrary day of the arbitrary man-made week. So you can rest and take any day or two off but don't say that this is decreed by The God!

The question I have for you, why is it that Allah swt only required from jews to observe Sabbath?, Why muslims are not required to observe Sabbath?

youssef4342

Peace Youssef,
The question I have for you, why is it that Allah swt only required from jews to observe Sabbath?, Why muslims are not required to observe Sabbath?

Peace abuamrrami peace
In the light of the bible, you will se ethat God Almighty was stipulating Commandments to the Children of Israel, in order for them to be "Holy" (e.g seperating the clean form the unclean). There are many laws encouraging this, from the one-type Garment, restrictive diet, to the cleansing and the "putting" away of the lepers and the human waste. Now the Sabbath rest day has the same essence, God Almighty created the Heavens/Earth/What's in between complex in six "days" (day=time period/cycle = heavenly 1,000 years), and he stopped his work logically, at that point after (e.g 7th "day", 1,000 year period), Now the Sabbath day comes to this in that, is it a kind of shadow of emmulation to the Children of Israel, (i.e 6 days that they may work, and the seventh they have to stop working)

Now to your question, God Almighty Clearly state sto us that he ONLY decreed the Sabbath on those who ended up desputing it (which can mean to say the Jews & Christians), and NOT on us, see

The Sabbath was decreed only for those who ended up disputing it. Your Lord is the One who will judge them on the Day of Resurrection regarding their disputes (16124)

**** Now if the Sabbath was Just a day of resting, why Does God Almighty Still Stipulate that He decreed the Sabbath only for those who ended up disputing it? (i.e and not on us)

GODsubmitter

Very good points youssef4342 . Thank you.

Here is an excellent text about Sabbath in the Qur'an.
God doesn't change ever, and He doesn't change His Commands!

http//www.ccg.org/english/s/p274.html

God please forgive me if I ever mislead anyone with my words!

loxbox13

Peace and salutations to all

Does anyone have any idea what the days of the week used to be called during the time that the Quran was revealed??

I'm sure they had a 7-day week system, as we all do know, but what names did the Arabs give each of these 7 days?

I mean if we could actually prove that there was no such name as "jumu3a" back then, the whole theory of Friday prayer will go straight down the drain..

the two names that are fabricated for religious purposes are Friday and saturday, called JUMAA and SABT
JUMUAA in the quran, means CONGRESS , JAMAA = Cngregation, it is a meeting in the SENAT , a State affair and not individuals

SABT = Pause or Rest , the word is used as SOUBAT means pause or sleep or stop etc ..

Sunday is the first day called AHAD , than Ithneyn, Thatath, Roubaa , Khamiss, Sudais, Usbouaa

the week is called Shaf'a

the Shaf'a (week, semaine et .) is 7 days,
and Witr (Three, Trois etc.. ) is 3 days

Shaf'a and witr are layali 10 , of the hajj

check sourah Fajr
1 2 3

check the hajj SAWM , 3 days than 7 when gone back
sourah2 196