Info on arabic plural wanted. Buyut...

Zulf

Peace,

I want to know from people who know arabic something regarding 'buyut' and the way Aidid Safar understands it vs the mainstream understanding and also the a grammatical viewpoint.

Aidid Safar writes
Quote "In 2461 the word buyuti is mentioned ten times in a command spoken to many people to refer to their
fathers, mothers, brothers, sisters, fathers? brothers, fathers? sisters, mothers? brothers, mothers? sisters and
friends. Each of them dwells only in one house at a time. The word buyuti refers to the house each of them
owns." End qoute.

Does his assertion work at all as far as grammar is concerned? Can one say e.g. 'the house (singular) of your fathers (plural)'? Of course person X's father lives in one house (sg.), but doesn't people X, Y and Z's fathers (pl.) live in houses (pl.)?

I just want to know if Aidid Safar's idea of 'buyut' being singular for house at all works grammatically? If so, what the heck would the plural of that be? And what the heck would the plural of 'bayt' be then? It's hard to swallow all this as it doesn't seem to work out properly.

Anyone, please help me out

thanks

Mazhar

Peace,

I want to know from people who know arabic something regarding 'buyut' and the way Aidid Safar understands it vs the mainstream understanding and also the a grammatical viewpoint.

Aidid Safar writes
Quote "In 2461 the word buyuti is mentioned ten times in a command spoken to many people to refer to their
fathers, mothers, brothers, sisters, fathers? brothers, fathers? sisters, mothers? brothers, mothers? sisters and
friends. Each of them dwells only in one house at a time. The word buyuti refers to the house each of them
owns." End qoute.

Does his assertion work at all as far as grammar is concerned? Can one say e.g. 'the house (singular) of your fathers (plural)'? Of course person X's father lives in one house (sg.), but doesn't people X, Y and Z's fathers (pl.) live in houses (pl.)?

I just want to know if Aidid Safar's idea of 'buyut' being singular for house at all works grammatically? If so, what the heck would the plural of that be? And what the heck would the plural of 'bayt' be then? It's hard to swallow all this as it doesn't seem to work out properly.

Anyone, please help me out

thanks

He is not suggesting that which you are inferring. For plural people there is plural noun, what he is saying is that plural is not for each of them, but respective houses.

Broken plurals are treated singular for grammatical purposes and as feminine---they are represented by singular feminine pronoun.

Zulf

Thanks Mazhar for your reply,

He is not suggesting that which you are inferring. For plural people there is plural noun, what he is saying is that plural is not for each of them, but respective houses.

I believe I understand what he means, but maybe I'm not expressing myself clearly. Does his understanding hold, based on grammar? Does it make sense to understand that part of the verse as a reference to one separate home of each of the fathers? Is "house(sg.) of your fathers" a correct understanding. Aidid means that 'buyut' is singular of house.

Broken plurals are treated singular for grammatical purposes and as feminine---they are represented by singular feminine pronoun.

So if 'buyut' was indeed a fem. sing. noun, then it would, grammar wise, always behave like a broken pl. noun?
Can one make out from other occurrences of 'buyut' in the quran, looking at the grammar, whether it is a sing. or pl. noun? I mean that either it must mean 'houses' or it must mean 'house', not both. Can the nature of this word be determined easily from grammar?

Peace and thanks

Mazhar

Grammatically "singular" does not mean that the referred object will become singular. It is plural, singular is .

"the houses of fathers of you people". These are two possessive phrases. Both Nouns and Pronoun are definite.