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  4. Why would God allow the Injeel and Torah to be violated, but not the Quran?

Why would God allow the Injeel and Torah to be violated, but not the Quran?

Scheduled Pinned Locked Moved Questions/Comments on the Quran
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  • M Offline
    M Offline
    Mohsin7
    wrote on last edited by
    #11

    I can't say I'm 100% convinced by it yet,

    I just think that probably Christianity was also revealed in such a time, and indeed Christianity as a religion has spread further around the globe than Islam

    Let's run some analytics, with regards to the prophecy in verse 933 "He it is Who sent His messenger with guidance and the religion of truth, that He might cause it to prevail over all religions, though the polytheists may be averse."

    The question Is this verse referring to our past, or our future? Did Islam ever reach a point where it prevailed over EVERY other system in this world?

    For the sake of argument, let's assume that the Abassids or the Umayyads or Mughals or the Ottomans etc. were "Islamic" systems (and they obviously were not). Even if they were, did they ever reach a climax where their might, economy, influence or population could actually "prevail" over that of the rest of the world combined? Of course not. Even today, the US would not be able to "prevail" over the rest of the world combined, and this is supposed to be the world's first official "hyperpower" . Back then China was likely the richest region in the world, and Europe was still more powerful militarily. Case in point The Crusades. Even though Muslims today think they "won" something when Europeans hacked their way straight into the middle east and held a capitol city for almost two centuries! How exactly should we be proud of that? Because oh great, we got it back.. eventually...? yay...

    Anyways, the conclusion from all of this should be obvious the verse 933 simply can not be about any period in the past. Thus, the actual "golden age" of Islam, and therefore the world itself, lies in the future.

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    • N Offline
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      newform
      wrote on last edited by
      #12

      These are great answers.

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      • N Offline
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        noshirk
        wrote on last edited by
        #13

        salaam
        Very interesting question.

        For the injeel, my response is easy Injeel is not gospel and injeel has never been corrupted.
        This is injeel for me
        http//www.zarathushtra.com/z/gatha/dji/The%20Gathas%20-%20DJI.pdf

        since Issa is not Jesus, gospel is obviouly not injeel but gospel is still inspired from true life of Issa.

        For Tawrat, it is more difficult but it seems that what we call tawrat is not tawrat.

        in these verses 7-145;7-150;7-154;54-13, Allah mentions tablets in wich message of God was written and given to Moses.
        According to torah, is seems that Moses broke the tablets and rewrote them. This contradicts quran 7-154.

        7154 And when the anger subsided from Moses, he took the tablets; and in its inscription was a guidance and a mercy for those who reverence their Lord.

        http//en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Tablets_of_Stone

        So, before saying that tawrat has been corrupted, we have to agree on what is tawrat ?
        is it tablets, actual torah or another thing ?

        Whatever is tawrat, it is funny to note that Allah use what seems same root tawara here (16-59;38-32) in a meaning of something hidden.

        Peace

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        • D Offline
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          David_Saidi
          wrote on last edited by
          #14

          Peace be upon you

          Why protect the Quran from forgery and falsification, and not protect the previous revelations?

          Why we must protect something with a lot of conjenctures.
          I already tried to read Bible, but I got bored in the middle way.Too many irrational verses in there.

          Many verses in the Koran said if this Book is mussadiq (confirming) the previous Books.
          Bible mostly talking bout histories, biographies, Judaic/Israeli traditions but rarely talking about teaching of Abraham religion.
          Too many bla bla bla in the current Bible, not get to the point.

          Quran is short, straight to the point and the conclusion of previous Books.

          For the injeel, my response is easy Injeel is not gospel and injeel has never been corrupted.
          This is injeel for me
          http//www.zarathushtra.com/z/gatha/dji/The%20Gathas%20-%20DJI.pdf

          What is your proof if the Gatha an actual Injeel?

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          • thsT Offline
            thsT Offline
            ths
            wrote on last edited by
            #15

            Salaam David,

            I already tried to read Bible, but I got bored in the middle way.Too many irrational verses in there.

            Well this is what I mean. The original "bible" was written in Aramaic. Yet the oldest Bible we have today is one of the Great Uncial Codices. We do not have the original, and we know for a fact that the text of the Bible has changed over time.

            As for the Quran, we do not have the 'original' Quran. But we do know that the text has remained intact and preserved in the original language, and we have a record of the variations.

            The Bible you read is just a translation. It would be like reading Abdullah Yusuf Ali's translation of the Quran only, without the original text.

            Salaam Mohsin7,

            I understand your argument, and again agree with your tafsir of the verse. I also agree that the Umayyads and Abbasids and Mamluks and their ilk were not Islamic empires. But this doesn't answer the question 'why?'.

            We know that the Quran contains the truth of all previous revelations (5/4, is complete in every respect (6/116), and will always be preserved (15/9).

            But why preserve this revelation, and none of the others?

            I think the strongest answer so far is that the world simply reached a point of globalization where a final revelation could be given to all of humanity. I don't really buy the argument that God has protected all the previous revelations through their meaning of key tenets or whatever. Sure, we know the key tenets of some earlier religions such as Christianity and Judaism. But if each community has been sent a messenger in the past then you'd expect the entire world to be filled with past revelations that all confirm each other. I think the vast majority have been wiped out, and many extant ones, like Hinduism for example, are distorted beyond recognition.

            Still, I can't help but wonder, why let all the others go astray and not the Quran? And why were the Arabs the final ones to receive a prophet? And what about the remote untouched tribal people in the Amazon and Indian Ocean...globalization has not reached them yet and they will have never even heard of the Quran...

            فَاسْتَبِقُوا الْخَيْرَاتِ
            So strive as in a race in all virtues! 5:48

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            • N Offline
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              noshirk
              wrote on last edited by
              #16

              What is your proof if the Gatha an actual Injeel?

              Salaam
              i explained why here http//free-minds.org/forum/index.php?topic=9604929.0

              headlines are

              • Meriem is sister of Aaron (19-2 and daughter of imran. That's Family of Moses also according old testament.
              • Issa is YESHUA BIN NUN (YESHUA=JESUS, BIN is feminine of BEN, NUN is NUN that is devoted women and root for word mother in many languages).
              • YESHUA BIN NUN is successor of Moses,quite a son for him, and gave promised land to bani israel according to Torah. He did the "job".
              • Zoroastrianism appeared quite same era as "torah".
              • Zoroastrians were, with the romans, the two superpowers in era of Muhammad. Arabia was between them. Quranic Nassara are Zoroastrians while the "opposite" faith was the roman /yahood faith. How to explain that quran never mention faith of the "other superpower", at the right side of arabia ?
                -Zoroastrianism influenced both judaism (babylon exile), judeo-christian faith (roman cult of Mithra) ans islam (Bukhari, Muslim, tabari, thirmidhi ... were all with zorostrians ancestors).
                -Probably, ZUL QARNEIN (two peoples) was the surname of Issa. Issa preached to two peoples Hebrews (as Yeshua BIN NUN) and Persians (as Zoroaster). It is perhaps why he was rejected for "trahison" by the "elected people".

              there is many other indirects proofs. For example, "the son of god" mythologies of horus, zeus,mithra and son on appeared after the "on of sister of aaron".
              Christianism is simply a mix between judaic and zorostrianism faith compiled by Constantin emperor at Nicee concile.

              but the main proof for me is gathas itself. it worth really to be read. i had no doubt that is inspired from my god, from the firts lecture, even if it was from a translated version.

              of course, i can be wrong. let say that gathas is injeel for me at 90%.
              Peace

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              • M Offline
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                Mohsin7
                wrote on last edited by
                #17

                But why preserve this revelation, and none of the others?

                Salaam ths,

                What's the point in preserving time and culturally specific guidance beyond it's relevant domain? It might even be counter productive. Having one perfect book remaining means there are no competitors that can challenge the Quran on rational grounds.

                I think the strongest answer so far is that the world simply reached a point of globalization where a final revelation could be given to all of humanity.

                Exactly.

                I don't really buy the argument that God has protected all the previous revelations through their meaning of key tenets or whatever.

                Agreed.

                Still, I can't help but wonder, why let all the others go astray and not the Quran?

                Because the alternative is taking away 'free will' and turning us all into Terminators (and then, Skynet wins...).

                After all God did not corrupt those scriptures, we did that ourselves (humans, aka galactic idiots). God of course knew that we would screw up so He planned accordingly.

                The verses in the Quran such as 2256, 18/29, 76/3, 90/10, which are usually mistranslated, explain this situation precisely. G.A.P has proved logically that these verses do not mean that people go astray because God does not want to guide certain people. But their actual meaning is that if God wanted to take away 'free will' and make us all obedient, He could have, but He has let us choose the wrong path so as to preserve our 'will' and this is why there is "no compulsion".

                And why were the Arabs the final ones to receive a prophet?

                Personally... I think it's due to geography (I mean come on, they call it "the MIDDLE east" after all), the language (Classical Arabic is the perfect language for such a 'future proof' message) and of course, the promise made to Abraham (I think there's evidence of this somewhere?)

                And what about the remote untouched tribal people in the Amazon and Indian Ocean...globalization has not reached them yet and they will have never even heard of the Quran...

                I've bolded the key word in that sentence. Another reason why we need to get in gear, pick up our game, and fix this situation ASAP... Cuz clearly the yanks/EU/"christians" aren't fit "to hold the mantle" (to steal a line from HALO 4).

                But... I'll give credit where it's due... They've done pretty well (that 6 century head start apparently really helped), but I'm sure they're past their peak..

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                • T Offline
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                  Timur
                  wrote on last edited by
                  #18

                  Peace Mohsin7.

                  Personally... I think it's due to geography (I mean come on, they call it "the MIDDLE east" after all),

                  The region is not called this way everywhere. In Germany for example we call it the "Near East/ Naher Osten" whereas the "Middle East/ Mittlerer Osten" is further eastwards http//de.wikipedia.org/wiki/Mittlerer_Osten

                  By the way, why not the middle west instead or even better a place between the east and the west?

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                  • M Offline
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                    Mohsin7
                    wrote on last edited by
                    #19

                    sigh .. you Germans... https//www.youtube.com/watch?v=zqAdxN1IWQQ

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                      Mazhar
                      wrote on last edited by
                      #20

                      I think the strongest answer so far is that the world simply reached a point of globalization where a final revelation could be given to all of humanity.

                      A book exists for guidance knowledge Life Manual for each period of time.

                      Allah the Exalted obscures that about which He so wills;

                      And He the Exalted perpetuates that which He so wills.

                      Take note; the Mother of the Book has been sent from His Grace.

                      Era of universalization of information

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                      • U Offline
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                        unknownuser
                        wrote on last edited by
                        #21

                        if the hands of men corrupt something you can compare it to an uncorrupted thing and see the difference also consider the praiseworthy ones (Prophet muhammad) 's struggle... it would none the less make it easy if it brings object from corrupters and sorts out the believers from those who are not.

                        look at the stories of these books, the torah the injil, or the more common story of Prophet musa (the honorable one) who brought down laws on tablets while the people were again volating what they had before.

                        just be glad ALLAH sent something true for the guidance of men you have the real to compare other things too.

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