Muhammad was allowed to create laws?
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I stumbled onto this and my limited knowledge is unable to refute it. Can anyone help me?
"In the beginning, one of the rules followed by the Muslims in respect of the fasts of Ramadan was that even a short nap after iftaar (breaking of a fast) would nullify the permissibility of having sexual intercourse with one's wife. So, if someone would sleep for a short while after iftaar and wake up again, he would lose the opportunity of sleeping with his wife during the rest of the night, despite that the fast was over. This rule was prescribed by the Holy Prophet and was not contained in the Holy Qur'?n. But some Muslims broke the rule by sleeping with their wives after having a post-iftaar nap. Referring to these events, the Holy Qur'?n first admonishes those people who did not follow the rule. Then, by abrogating the same, allows the Muslims in future to sleep with their wives even when they had a nap after iftaar. In this context the Holy Qur'?n says
It is made lawful for you, in the nights of fasts, to have sex with your women. They are a cover for you, and you are a cover for them. All?h knew that you were betraying yourselves; so, He relented towards you and pardoned you. So, now you can have sexual intimacy with them, and seek what All?h has destined for you, and eat and drink until the white thread of the dawn becomes distinct from the black thread; then complete the fasts up to the night. (2187)
The following points with respect to this verse are worth consideration
(a) The verse confirms that having sex during the nights of Ramadaan was not lawful before.
(b) The people who had sex during the nights of Ramadaan before this verse was revealed are admonished by describing their act as "betraying themselves."
(c) The words, "so He relented towards you and pardoned you," indicate that their sexual act was a sin, because "relenting" and "pardoning" occur only after a person commits a sin.
(d) The words "so now you can have sexual intimacy with them" denote that it is only now that the sexual act during the nights of Ramadaan has been made lawful.
All these points confirm the fact that the earlier prohibition of having sexual intercourse during the nights of Ramadaan was validly made by a competent authority, and the Muslims were bound to abide by it.
But there is no verse in the Holy Qur'?n to convey this prohibition.. It was enforced only by the Holy Prophet. Still, the Holy Qur'?n not only confirms it, but also treats it as if it were in its own words. It is due to the fact that the Holy Prophet did not enforce this prohibition by his own will, it was rather based on a revelation of All?h Almighty which is not contained in the Holy Qur'?n.
Looked at from this angle, this verse on the one hand proves that there is a revelation which does not form part of the Holy Qur'?n, and on the other hand it reaffirms the status of the Holy Prophet as a law-giver, and that his injunctions, both orders and prohibitions, are binding on the Muslims."
I've been in an intense discussion with a "traditional Islamist" about the status of Hadith. I've put a significant amount of time into researching every angle I find or can think of, but given that my interest in Islam is fairly new, I'm still quite naive. I don't know enough to refute the interpretation of the verse above, so I'm hoping I can find some help here.
(excerpt taken from http//www.call-to-monotheism.com/refuting_the_argument_that_the_qur_an_was_the_only_revelation_that_the_prophet_received_from_allah_)
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Maybe this could be of some reference.
2144 We see the shifting of your face towards the heaven; We will thus set for you a focal point that will be pleasing to you ?You shall set yourself towards the Restricted Temple; and wherever you may be, you shall all set yourselves towards it.? Those who have been given the Book know it is the truth from their Lord. And God is not unaware of what you do.
cheers
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Honestly, all of these inferences are just bogus, if you mind me.
Have faith
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If Im not mistaken in the old day the Israelite was obligated to do fasting 3 days where anyone who did not do that would be killed. If Im not miss remembering there is christiant who said the rule was, not allowed to do sex with your wive. I think the quran was talked about that rule. I think I saw it somewhere on the Torah. But I forget, its been 2 years I did not read the torat again, my memories are poor.
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The following points with respect to this verse are worth consideration
Peace jaynaj --
2187 permitted for you night the fast the sexual relations to womenfolk yours they garment for you and are you garment for them knowledge the god that you be you deceiving souls yours (i.e. yourselves) so turned on you and forgave about you so the hence/now have relations with them
(a) The verse confirms that having sex during the nights of Ramadaan was not lawful before.
Where does it say not lawful before?
(b) The people who had sex during the nights of Ramadaan before this verse was revealed are admonished by describing their act as "betraying themselves."
They were deceiving themselves thinking it not lawful at night.
(c) The words, "so He relented towards you and pardoned you," indicate that their sexual act was a sin, because "relenting" and "pardoning" occur only after a person commits a sin.
They were forgiven for making up things that it was unlawful at night.
(d) The words "so now you can have sexual intimacy with them" denote that it is only now that the sexual act during the nights of Ramadaan has been made lawful.
It denotes ?now have relations with them? which was always the case...
3362 manner the god in/concerning the ones passed they of from before and never thou find to manner the god change of
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Salam Sister Jaynaj.
I am not going to answer your question - just giving you some food for thought. I know you are smart enough to find your own answers.
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Did your mathematics teacher at school have authority to assign you textbooks? Homeworks? Quizes? Exams?
Did she have authority to prescribe when a homework will be due OR how long an exam will last? -
Did she have authority to create new mathematical laws?
Are 1 and 2 same?
May Allah guide us all to the straight route.
Regards,
Arman -
