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  4. Nearness and Guidance -> Knowledge and Wisdom = Peace and Prosperity

Nearness and Guidance -> Knowledge and Wisdom = Peace and Prosperity

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  • R Offline
    R Offline
    runninglikezebras
    wrote on last edited by
    #574

    "...except Iblis. He was one of the jinn..."

    Iblis, a malaika (234), being in 'beast-mode' - as you define jinn - utterly contradicts the definition of malaika in Quran. Malaika praise God (2120, 413. Nothing is closer to God on a spiritual level than mailaika. On top of that Iblis predates the creation of any physical body that is required for the animal instinct which you equate jinn with to even exist. When Iblis was created from fire, there was no fleshly body yet. This was only created with the creation of Adam, made from clay.

    @MoF, have you overlooked this? You are creating countless contradictions in Quran by your interpretation of Jinn. Add to this the etymological evidence majnn 'mad' (literally, 'one whose intellect is hidden&#039, junn 'madness', and jann 'embryo, fetus' ('hidden inside the womb&#039 - all sharing the same root, all referring to something hidden. I think your understanding of Jinn is utterly flawed. I wouldn't call it heretic but a rather catholic/mistaken perspective on things while ignoring the etymology of the root word.

    Peace

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    • M Offline
      M Offline
      Man_of_Faith
      wrote on last edited by
      #575

      Salaam zebra,

      It is the common interpretation that is flawed. Jinn does not refer to something hidden but a body.

      Madness is written with the same form as garden, i.e. jannateh and it could be said to be something that covers someone/something. A mental disorder covers your soul and body from letting it work properly. refers to a (standalone) object.

      If I create some kind of contradiction is because the traditional interpretation is in contradiction with he truth.

      Besides, please do not lecture me about the etymology of without studying the phenomenon first. You seem to have just sold yourself out for a cheap interpretation and first-hand dictionary reference, particularly based on a word with thousands of years of history including sectarian bias. But if you like your hidden supernatural beings keep them, but you have to bring better arguments around here.

      You cannot use jannateh to refer to a not yet seen paradise because the word is used in everyday Classical Arabic to refer to a garden as visible as it can be and it is a BODY OF LAND, covering something (al-ardh/the earth).

      If the word is used for fetus/embryo is because it is a simplification of to say to have a body inside, a fetus.

      And I have said it before, this is etymology taken from such as Lane's Lexicon. And I am not sure what kind of Catholic perspective you are talking about.

      Gehennom refers to the same, it is a permanent attachment the body. Even the very flawed traditional interpretation gives mention of that people in Hell are given new bodies. Want linguistic parallels I can say the reason why day in Arabic is is because means light. Compare that to (gehennom) which uses the root and not because of any hidden connotation but because of an "attachment to body attribute".

      Come on. Drop your sectarian delusion. You have claimed to have left traditional Islam behind and you fall for cheap traps like these induced by the same people you claim to reject. Either that or bring proper scientific studies over how the language can refer to some kind of superstitious supernatural being. It is so illogical and yet you propagate it using sectarian translations which have no basis with reality but teach just a (Pagan) sect/religion.

      If something is hidden then a nas is that for it is your spirit/soul. A'nas is "to sense " referring to the senses. Nafs is your person, all combined as you appear on Earth.

      But if you have nothing else to say but criticism without a foundation then please refrain from posting here because it is not for circular reasoning in here. I think I asked before, so could please you be courteous. I have made progress with somewhat scientific or at least logical and rational research methods but you are at square one with no independent research mirroring the sectarian bias of the crazy clergymen you claim you reject. I even brought information despite the risk of bias from lexicons due to criticism and they just confirm what I say. Get over it and quit being proud, you have been fooled. We all have to one extent or another.

      Salaam

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      • R Offline
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        runninglikezebras
        wrote on last edited by
        #576

        I think you have never seen an arabic garden. If you did you'd realize the hidden aspect of them.

        Now please try to explain to me how someone can be malaika and jinn at the same time with your interpretation of jinn. How can anything be of beastly nature when it does not have body?

        ps I was never a sectarian and never belonged to any sect

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        • M Offline
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          Man_of_Faith
          wrote on last edited by
          #577

          Salaam,

          Of course a Maleika is close to GOD, it is from the root and means to be in control. It means a person has authority in the realm of GOD.

          Can you give me anywhere in 234 where it says a malekateh is Ibless. There are linguistic issues here as well. One is that (ila) does not mean not/except.

          And please do not mess around with words. There is no "hidden aspect", but a can be just any fruit garden around. Even in traditional etymology the word symbolizes a garden and it is because this lot covers some land. You have a good elaboration in Lane's about the word marking what covers something. What do you argue against? The sectarian interpretation that you know what they have done to it with all hadithic influence and conjecture? is a physical body of something.

          But you lose to the sectarian agenda in your inability to see how you are biased by such doctrine.

          And first of all you should know what "Shaytaan" is. It is instincts/temptation. You can look up its etymology if you are seriously interested. Just like with GOD people have objectified this phenomenon. That is jinn because it is beastly desire. There is a lot of sectarian disinformation. Nothing says that the jann in the Hebrew folklore is an angel.

          Thanks for bringing it up though so I can address your points even if it seems you have swallowed the sectarian version deeply and not about to change, despite logical input concerning that also DOES NOT go against lexicons.

          Salaam

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          • R Offline
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            runninglikezebras
            wrote on last edited by
            #578
            1. Quran is pretty clear in this. Even if you dispute what the meaning of ila is (which I dont) - Iblis is one of the malaika. Iblis was one who did not want to sujud to Adam. God asked the malaika to do sujud to Adam eg 3875. Therefor Iblis is malaika.

            2. It is not referring to just any garden. It is an enclosed garden by walls just like paradise in Quran has walls. Therefor it has the same root word. It hides the garden to the outside world.

            The root word means hidden, etymologically it always did in the phoenician word for shield, in aramaic it also means hidden. The use of the root to refer to a garden, specifically denotes an enclosed garden (hidden from the outside). You fail to understand the root of this word is older than Quran and never meant anything different than concealed/hidden. Are you saying sectarian islamic doctrine has influenced the phoenician/aramaic roots of this word even if there was no islam at that time?

            This is not knowledge I got from sectarian doctrine but it's simply linguistic understanding which you seem to lack.

            Please stop calling everyone who disagrees with you a sectarian. It's a bit ridiculous to do so, especially realizing I never was sunni or shia.

            Peace

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            • R Offline
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              runninglikezebras
              wrote on last edited by
              #579

              Some references

              Historian of religions Javier Teixidor

              http//i.imgur.com/pRmNcfX.png

              W.F. Albright

              http//i.imgur.com/BTkdyCF.png
              http//i.imgur.com/4we0QV9.png

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              • M Offline
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                Man_of_Faith
                wrote on last edited by
                #580

                Salaam,

                Albeit nothing says a maleika could not be cursed to the flesh, so it is still not impossible. It could explain the personal aspect of Shaytaan. The word shaytaan itself means temptation/desire.

                The word Ebliss does not need to be a name and the root Ba-Lam-Seen suggests someone is broken, despair, mournful. Would you give anyone this name to any person to be called? I doubt it. The word A'bliss is part of a linguistic formula in the sentence. Of course the delusion that (ila) means not/except could help create the false impression that you speak of a person here, but Abless is hardly a given name to any being and it causes inconsistency. It is highly likely to have been used because ancient interpreters in their folly saw no other solution due to their ignorance and Ebless was fabricated. No where does it say Ebless changed name to Shaytaan which would be an obvious element of any coherent text.

                Additionally, sujud does not mean prostrate for the spirits were hardly told to prostrate but to be of assistance strengthened by the fact it says a'sujuda l'Adam. "So assist of which to be the broken/despairing father", i.e. Adam (part of 234 "fasujuda ila abless aba&quot. It makes it just clear to why the Malakateh are assisting because it will be a despairing man and his offspring including you and me. Astakbar does likely not hold a negative meaning in the phrase afterwards either because it is not necessarily negative but it can mean to make someone grown up.

                Even kafiriin suggests being part of talk about Adam but the MIN in "kaan min alkafariin" implies selectivity with attribution only to those it is true for. The malaikateh are thus supposed to assist everyone, even those who do wrong (obviously not to do criminal activity, but to keep the tie to the command).

                In the Genesis is it quite absent about a Shaytaan either but it was a jan (snake) that tricked Adam.

                It is unbelievable that you are so stubborn on this about jinn and the official record on the sectarian version when you know how deceptive the clergy always have been and also the prophets warned about the tongues of men.

                "Therefore Ibliss is Malaika" - Very narrow-minded argument. Ibliss is likely not even a name.

                No for GOD sake, janan does not mean hidden it means covered. You can check, as I said several times, the etymology of the word and you see that it is something that envelopes something. There is nothing hidden about janan. It is a false definition in the lexicons. A lexicon would not let it give example of clothes, armor etc that envelops a person if it was not meant as covering. I have studied this more than you have or you would have known this. You just listen to what people say with their mouths or references to bogus history. Same for jannateh, it is a garden because it is something that COVERS THE GROUND. Do you say that Adam and his wife were having walls around them in 235 too?

                The walls in the Middle-East (I live there) are in one way territorial and to protect from wildlife and bandits, but it nowadays often has to do with the sectarian obsession that women cannot be watched. It does however by no means make the land hidden because you can still observe the ground from somewhere elevated. It is NOT invisible.

                Jannateh has nothing to do with walled gardens but it is just garden. In a narrative about the two men with gardens do you suggest they built walls even despite a river crossed between their lands.

                I am not calling you sectarian. I was saying you swallowed the sectarian deception and let it delude you. You just defend this ridiculous hidden argument into death.

                Further definitions for jannateh is place of agriculture, herbage. There is no indication in an Arabic lexicon I watched that it is a hidden piece of land. The enclosed is a misconception. It is supposed to mean what I already said that the garden covers the land, but obviously it can be on the height too if you have bushes and trees covering insight.

                Anyone in their right mind would outright see the sense in this.

                Anyway, please stop this circular reasoning now because it is the same argument each time about hidden. Enclosed is in a way right, because it is a body of land and what envelopes it, but that does not make it hidden. It is not invisible in any way and you are just desperately defending this view by interpretation acrobatics to save your hidden obsession and strange supernatural beings.

                For reference, jan is used in the Hebrew (same semitic root) to signify snake in Genesis in the Biblical Scriptures. Do you claim Adam does not see it?

                Do not the people in Solomon's court see the one who suggests a scheme to bring down the rule of the Queen?

                And please consider who lacks linguistic insight. Ignorant scholars? You? Do you think I study hard to lack linguistic insight? I have probably read more historical documents on than you have and I make rational reflection instead of cheap buying.

                It is contradictory that it would mean hidden when the jinn are very present in the narratives.

                The Quranic Arabic is just twisted to make unaware readers think jinn is something else.
                You probably do not believe in my 'Innate Letter Meaning' method but it also confirms the covering argument. = "Low Integrity", it can be seen the same that it is that is a shelling, outer layer of something like the garden is or your clothes or your skin or the body is your external visible representation here.

                means the body of something.

                Salaam

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                • R Offline
                  R Offline
                  runninglikezebras
                  wrote on last edited by
                  #581

                  Salaam,

                  Albeit nothing says a maleika could not be cursed to the flesh, so it is still not impossible. It could explain the personal aspect of Shaytaan. The word shaytaan itself means temptation/desire.

                  The word Ebliss does not need to be a name and the root Ba-Lam-Seen suggests someone is broken, despair, mournful. Would you give anyone this name to any person to be called? I doubt it. The word A'bliss is part of a linguistic formula in the sentence. Of course the delusion that (ila) means not/except could help create the false impression that you speak of a person here, but Abless is hardly a given name to any being and it causes inconsistency. It is highly likely to have been used because ancient interpreters in their folly saw no other solution due to their ignorance and Ebless was fabricated. No where does it say Ebless changed name to Shaytaan which would be an obvious element of any coherent text.

                  The Angels were asked to do sujud for Adam. Iblis is among them. Wether you dispute the meaning of ila, this does not change. In other verses, God asks Iblis why he refused this command to do sujud. Therefor the identification of Iblis as malaika is not even depending on the ila in that verse.

                  Additionally, sujud does not mean prostrate for the spirits were hardly told to prostrate but to be of assistance strengthened by the fact it says a'sujuda l'Adam. "So assist of which to be the broken/despairing father", i.e. Adam (part of 234 "fasujuda ila abless aba&quot. It makes it just clear to why the Malakateh are assisting because it will be a despairing man and his offspring including you and me. Astakbar does likely not hold a negative meaning in the phrase afterwards either because it is not necessarily negative but it can mean to make someone grown up.

                  I never claimed sujud means prostate. I never used prostate, I explicitly used the arabic sujud. Still you react like I used the verb prostate in my arguments.

                  Even kafiriin suggests being part of talk about Adam but the MIN in "kaan min alkafariin" implies selectivity with attribution only to those it is true for. The malaikateh are thus supposed to assist everyone, even those who do wrong (obviously not to do criminal activity, but to keep the tie to the command).

                  I don't see how this is relevant to the meaning of jinn whatsoever. You keep reiterating your interpretation of shaytan, Iblis etc which is negating linguistic evidence.

                  In the Genesis is it quite absent about a Shaytaan either but it was a jan (snake) that tricked Adam.

                  Jan is not the hebrew word for snake. Jan has the same aramaic root meaning hidden. These are borrowed words from aramaic. There is no doubt about the meaning of the root word in aramaic as it's found on inscriptions in eg Palmyra. They always referred to hidden entities. Without body. This hidden aspect is among one of the reasons people started worshipping statues of these jinn. They dont have a physical body like we do.

                  It is unbelievable that you are so stubborn on this about jinn and the official record on the sectarian version when you know how deceptive the clergy always have been and also the prophets warned about the tongues of men.

                  The aramaic roots of the word are way older than any islamic sectarian influence. But it's true, in this matter the sectarians have a more truthful understanding of the word jinn than you are showing right now. At least their understanding is compatible with etymological and linguistic evidence.

                  "Therefore Ibliss is Malaika" - Very narrow-minded argument. Ibliss is likely not even a name.

                  It is a proper name by all means.

                  No for GOD sake, janan does not mean hidden it means covered. You can check, as I said several times, the etymology of the word and you see that it is something that envelopes something. There is nothing hidden about janan. It is a false definition in the lexicons. A lexicon would not let it give example of clothes, armor etc that envelops a person if it was not meant as covering. I have studied this more than you have or you would have known this. You just listen to what people say with their mouths or references to bogus history. Same for jannateh, it is a garden because it is something that COVERS THE GROUND. Do you say that Adam and his wife were having walls around them in 235 too?

                  So it's a giant conspiracy? The sectarians modified all the hebrew, aramaic and phoenician lexicons and changed the meaning of the shared root word from "beastly" to "hidden"? You need a reality check. What you are saying is just laughable. Look up the word jinn was borrowed from in aramaic. You will find the same meaning everywhere. Same thing for any hebrew meaning of jan.

                  The walls in the Middle-East (I live there) are in one way territorial and to protect from wildlife and bandits, but it nowadays often has to do with the sectarian obsession that women cannot be watched. It does however by no means make the land hidden because you can still observe the ground from somewhere elevated. It is NOT invisible.

                  Compared to many european gardens they are hidden gems.

                  Jannateh has nothing to do with walled gardens but it is just garden. In a narrative about the two men with gardens do you suggest they built walls even despite a river crossed between their lands.

                  More than likely they did. But to realize this you need to understand the root word first. Which you dont.

                  I am not calling you sectarian. I was saying you swallowed the sectarian deception and let it delude you. You just defend this ridiculous hidden argument into death.

                  My understanding of the root word comes from aramaic, hebrew and arab lexicons. How does this make me blinded by sectarian deception? You are not making sense.

                  Further definitions for jannateh is place of agriculture, herbage. There is no indication in an Arabic lexicon I watched that it is a hidden piece of land. The enclosed is a misconception. It is supposed to mean what I already said that the garden covers the land, but obviously it can be on the height too if you have bushes and trees covering insight.

                  Anyone in their right mind would outright see the sense in this.

                  Anyway, please stop this circular reasoning now because it is the same argument each time about hidden. Enclosed is in a way right, because it is a body of land and what envelopes it, but that does not make it hidden. It is not invisible in any way and you are just desperately defending this view by interpretation acrobatics to save your hidden obsession and strange supernatural beings.

                  I've noticed this misunderstanding with you before. You think something invisible means supernatural. Which is simpleminded. All of quantum mechanics is invisible to human perception. There is nothing supernatural about it. I'm not obsessed with anything. I'm not even defending my point of view but confronting you with a thesis that does not withstand any linguistic scrutiny. I understand where you come from though. You consider yourself to be a rational thinking person, you consider the traditional understanding of jinn to imply supernatural beings (which I showed you isn't necessarily true) - so you react allergic to it and start reinventing meaning of words that have had the same meaning of hundreds of years.

                  For reference, jan is used in the Hebrew (same semitic root) to signify snake in Genesis in the Biblical Scriptures. Do you claim Adam does not see it?

                  Jan is not the hebrew word for snake. If you read jan it meant hidden.

                  Do not the people in Solomon's court see the one who suggests a scheme to bring down the rule of the Queen?

                  It's not uncommon for hidden things to be able to manifest themselves physically. Some malaika can do this as well especially when they are performing a task of messengership.

                  And please consider who lacks linguistic insight. Ignorant scholars? You? Do you think I study hard to lack linguistic insight? I have probably read more historical documents on than you have and I make rational reflection instead of cheap buying.

                  I'm not judging your level of expertise, all I can conclude from what you are posting here is showing me you never reached to an aramaic lexicon to crosscheck the meaning of the root word that was borrowed later in both hebrew and arabic.

                  It is contradictory that it would mean hidden when the jinn are very present in the narratives.

                  See above answer. No it isn't.

                  The Quranic Arabic is just twisted to make unaware readers think jinn is something else.
                  You probably do not believe in my 'Innate Letter Meaning' method but it also confirms the covering argument. = "Low Integrity", it can be seen the same that it is that is a shelling, outer layer of something like the garden is or your clothes or your skin or the body is your external visible representation here.

                  Your innate letter meaning is just inventing your own meaning for words while ignoring their ancient, documented meaning throughout history. See the palmyra inscriptures. They never meant low integrity.

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                  • M Offline
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                    Man_of_Faith
                    wrote on last edited by
                    #582

                    Jan means cover not hidden. Do you have problems with comprehension?

                    If you study lexicons you see clearly the word's meaning is what covers something. What kind of lexicon are you staring at?

                    Please refrain from posting any more here.

                    Regarding snake you are right. I was biased by a sectarian source and a translation of 2831 where is translated as snake. However, the staff was not turned into a traditional jinn but a body of something. Just gives you more evidence of the visibility of what is a jinn. Why would he be afraid if it was invisible and why would the people in Mesr be afraid if it was invisible. It is contradictory logic.

                    Just face it. Jinns are visible. Only sectarian superstitious jinns are invisible for they have invented labels for the word.

                    And I did not say beastly for the word. I said THE BODY/COVER OF SOMETHING. That is confirmed by Edward William Lane's Arabic lexicon. And the reason Jannateh (garden) is called that is because IT IS A COVER OVER SOMETHING.

                    Again, unless you have something that outdoes what I have presented, refrain from posting something else of circular reasoning for this thread is supposed to expand the knowledge of Quran's right interpretation and not stay in the dark. I have already proved jinn's physical meaning.

                    Salaam

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                    • M Offline
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                      Man_of_Faith
                      wrote on last edited by
                      #583

                      Ibless does not have to be a proper name. Ibless, the word, can also be interpreted as a word with the grammatical prefix alef in front. is a root and have several definitions such as broken.

                      In Arabic it is hard sometimes to know what is a name or not because people are called descriptive words such as hassan which is also a very common word.

                      Salaam

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                        Man_of_Faith
                        wrote on last edited by
                        #584

                        Salaam,

                        To continue on individual Arabic words and the list I made an article on previously

                        (nur) - used as (naar) to symbolize fire, but there is ambiguity in Lane's Lexicon, a lexicon compiled by Edward Lane in the 19th century which is not exactly an independent work but Lane gathered multiple ancient mono-lingual Arabic lexicons and made his own interpretation into English based on his understanding and research on etymology.

                        Nur can also mean heat and light according to available definitions and probably the radiation of energy which is probably a relatively modern word in this context and may not have existed when Quran was written but the Arabic may have used this root instead.

                        It is worth noting that (nahaar) is the Arabic word for day (attached light) and is a modification of the root with an added (ha). The Sun's radiation also generates heat when absorbed by various materials. It is fairly easy to infer that nahaar is form of naar with a modifier letter in it.

                        I will bring a live sample from Quran to explain the point.

                        Surah Al-Qasas, Verse 29

                        And as Moses had fulfilled his term and was wandering with his family he sensed a/n energy/heat/light from the nearby mountain; he said to his family...

                        (I did not translate the whole passage because it is irrelevant in this)

                        Another important aspect of this passage is that is used to symbolize senses/perception. I am strongly claiming that the passages which talk about and do not speak of jinns and humans but of body and senses. A different kind of supernatural/invisible race called Jinn is merely part of human and sectarian superstition. This phrasing occurs multiple times in Quran. Note that the same word (&#1587 is also used to convey sense/perception in the above passage I copy-pasted. It is a blatant lie about both nas and jinn. Jinn I have already propagated about recently and I say it means "the body of something" or reference to someone who is earthly/bodily in their perception such as in the Jinn narrative where the Jinn makes a suggestion to Solomon about the strategical approach towards the Queen's realm.

                        When Quran addresses Al-Nas directly it speaks to "of those sensible", sensible ones.

                        Arabic has the minimum amount of available different definitions for each word so several definitions in available ancient dictionaries are mere lies and particularly an Arabic root does not have several completely different meanings but all mean something along the lines of one. Arabic is a very clear language with little ambiguity, but sectarian clerics and scholars have fabricated additional ones.

                        Those who argue against me on the account of jinn must study old Arabic lexicons very carefully and consider the Quranic usage. Among available definitions is the layer/covering of something and not what is inside of that cover but the actual cover of that object. If is used to symbolize affliction/madness it is because abstractly this affection is an agent/body that covers the body in some way, lunacy or standard physical disease. (jannateh) causes the (jann) root to attain external object meaning to say another thing covers something such as an may be a garden that covers the (al-ardh, the Earth) but it can also be an agent which causes madness in an individual, a clouding of the mind, i.e cover.

                        Invisible is thus only a possible indirect meaning of the root because the entity covers something, but as for invisible per direct definition you need another root such as or similar (unseen/unknown/secret/invisible/out of perception).

                        You probably understand that the Quran needs a complete revamp in terms of reinterpretation. It is as if people never mastered Arabic who tried to comprehend it or they had their own agenda.

                        (la) is one of the biggest blatant lies unveiled during my research. It does not mean 'not' but 'which be' and changes a substantial part of Quran completely. Famously it is used in the phrase "la Elah ila Allah", but with the proper interpretation it means something different than traditionally conceived. The sectarian clerics and scholars could probably not take that the phrase said what it said and decided to force 'la' to mean something else to suit their agenda. The late Mr. Jesus/Isa had already said though that people should be in the Creator and the Creator in them, but this the interpreters seem to have cared little about. The idol ALLAH is/was important to them.

                        Salaam

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                          Man_of_Faith
                          wrote on last edited by
                          #585

                          Hail to you all,

                          I have been studying chapter 36 traditionally referred to as Ya-Siin and made a full reinterpretation over a few days and made astonishing discoveries. First of all, the traditional translations are not even close to what the real interpretation says. It is not fair to the original Arabic text even remotely. I have a very literal translation made at this time which I will refine and publish extracts from.

                          The chapter covers

                          Several parables which are present in the Bible
                          The name of Isaiah in 3620
                          A famous saying of Isaiah about that if one sins they will face of adversity to the equal magnitude of the sin
                          That we are part of a "sifting" process
                          That we are in symbiosis with the Sustainer (Rabb) if we become perfected
                          Similar teachings that Jesus uttered
                          That we currently are in the progress of fulfilling an old prophecy by Isaiah when "The Compilation" (as GOD puts it) will be orderly perserved.

                          Be well

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                            good_logic
                            wrote on last edited by
                            #586

                            Peace Man Of Faith.

                            The word " " is a verb in 3620 .It is not a name?

                            There is a similar word in 2820

                            It is not "Isaiah".

                            GOD bless you.
                            Peace.

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                            • M Offline
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                              Man_of_Faith
                              wrote on last edited by
                              #587

                              It is a name. Isaiah is spelled like that in Arabic. Semitic tradition names can both be standard words of the language and names, hence why it may be difficult to recognize if it is a proper name or a normal word, if you are unfamiliar or unskilled at deciphering the passages.

                              If you use diacritical markers to recognize if it is a name I have to disappoint you that those are not native with the original manuscript.

                              Isaiah's name is hidden in the context of an extremely poorly interpreted text which makes me disappointed with how deluded people are.

                              Straight after the word is mentioned a famous quote of Isaiah is written out talking about sins and that the consequence is exposure to something of the same proportion.

                              Obviously you miss out on that if you read it with the mainstream knowledge and perception of Arabic. Are you going to argue about such then you can have your perception and I have mine.

                              Even if theoretically was not Isaiah's name it is pronounced the same way as in Semitic ancestry which is quite peculiar.

                              The word is mentioned six times in Quran.

                              It is also strange that the famous and important figure Isaiah was not to be mentioned in Quran considered he prophesied the coming of multiple prophets including Jesus, John, and an unknown prophet. Well, now you have the answer, if your mind is receptive enough to absorb it.

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                                good_logic
                                wrote on last edited by
                                #588

                                Peace Man Of Faith.

                                Are you serious?

                                And you want us to read your threads and benefit from your research?

                                I was trying to help you see your error.
                                I give up.

                                Carry on then with your own made up,wrong translation.

                                GOD bless you.
                                Peace.

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                                  Man_of_Faith
                                  wrote on last edited by
                                  #589

                                  I am serious and it is you and the rest of deluded who are wrong and I cannot but pitying you for not perceiving it. You cannot get me discouraged and stop my work you know, but I feel sorry for you living in an interpretation that deluded people alluded totally. And you say you want to help me. Help yourself.

                                  You are living the Pagan delusion.

                                  is Isaiah and the qoute straight after is his saying.

                                  Perhaps you do not benefit from my research, but perhaps someone with a receptive mind will. Anyway I deem that my work will be more convincing now that I am getting versed with the real Arabic language of Quran.

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                                    FreedomStands
                                    wrote on last edited by
                                    #590

                                    I am serious and it is you and the rest of deluded who are wrong and I cannot but pitying you for not perceiving it. You cannot get me discouraged and stop my work you know, but I feel sorry for you living in an interpretation that deluded people alluded totally. And you say you want to help me. Help yourself.

                                    You are living the Pagan delusion.

                                    is Isaiah and the qoute straight after is his saying.

                                    Perhaps you do not benefit from my research, but perhaps someone with a receptive mind will. Anyway I deem that my work will be more convincing now that I am getting versed with the real Arabic language of Quran.

                                    I wouldn't want you to stop your work, I think it will make a really great contribution.

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                                      Man_of_Faith
                                      wrote on last edited by
                                      #591

                                      Freedomstands,

                                      If you only knew.

                                      Quran was revealed by an unknown prophet who wrote it and it has not been properly deciphered until now except that a bunch of deluded sectarians have tried, not caring for more than "validating" their deluded doctrine in an innocent context inventing phenomena such as salat as a ritual prayer etc for it was already in use by the sects so it had to be forced to confirm it.

                                      Deciphering it properly is a tedious work but not impossible (nothing is impossible except for the weak-minded) and the correct definitions are already in ancient Arabic definitions albeit corrupted to signify that Arabic words have multiple meanings while an Arabic word has only one general meaning due to that it speaks out from its combination of letters.

                                      Salat, for example, means to consciously follow something and in ancient lexicons there are examples with horse races and this is exactly what the word means, i.e. to follow.

                                      Be well

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                                        good_logic
                                        wrote on last edited by
                                        #592

                                        Peace Man Of Faith.

                                        Look brother if you are saying " "in 3620 means Isaiah, then "" in 2820 also means Isaiah.

                                        This is not possible anyway since 2820 is dealing with Moses, Isaiah did not exist then?!!!.

                                        But I am fine with you accepting whatever you wish. Why would I want to stop you anyway.

                                        Brother ,carry on,but use the same reasoning with yourself as you would want others to use for you.

                                        Would you want us to accept the truth,but you are exempt?

                                        GOD bless you.
                                        Peace.

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                                          unknownuser
                                          wrote on last edited by
                                          #593

                                          His work will be interesting though, correct or not. To every person's mind, his own thinking is correct. I say it will be interesting because we will have another piece of work that can be compared to existing work, and then we should follow the best of them~.

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