Fasting and ramadan according to quran
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Progressive1993,
If the body cannot keep up with nutrition supply then it will naturally begin to break down muscle tissue. Lasting stunted eating makes it hard for the body to regulate the metabolism and absorb nutrients from food as you fill it to the limit in the night.
"Starvation mode" is not a fitness propaganda. It is the biological reaction for the body to adapt so that you stay alive during a crisis. The person in the article I posted wrote about the biological reaction during a halt in food consumption.
And my point was that there is scientific backup that the body will enter starvation mode after a certain time and it will have trouble adapting to stunted eating. Otherwise many people would not have trouble fasting without pathological indications. Already as early as beyond six hours there are adverse effects on performance, however since Homo Sapiens is an animal it will have biological features such as restlessness to sit idle to elicit forth the desire to seek out food.
I said short fasts are good, but longer ones are going to reverse that.
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Peace Godsubmitter
but I've checked almost all the translations of that aya (Openburhan. com) and they all translate fasting DURING "that" month... (not IN IT)...
(218517)
falyaum'hu
then he should fast in it, RSLT ? prefixed result particle
IMPV ? prefixed imperative particle lm
V ? 3rd person masculine singular imperfect verb, jussive mood
PRON ? 3rd person masculine singular object pronoun -
(218517)
falyaum'hu
then he should fast in it,Peace hafeez kazi
Pronoun "hu" does not mean "in it" but "he or it". So the translation becomes "so he should fast it". So how one can fast "al-shahar" - traditionally translated as the month?
May Allah help us understanding His book.
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Peace Novice
First of all no language can be translated word to word in other languages
Literally if you translate then you are right because you cannot fast the month. Since the Quran was revealed IN the month of Ramadhan, the logical conclusion should be to fast IN the month of Ramadhan. If there would have been FIHI in the verse it would have an explicit command.
Thanks
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Peace hafeez kazi
Pronoun "hu" does not mean "in it" but "he or it". So the translation becomes "so he should fast it". So how one can fast "al-shahar" - traditionally translated as the month?
May Allah help us understanding His book.
I asked the same question here
http//free-minds.org/forum/index.php?topic=9188.msg334061#msg334061 -
wait if quran tells us to abstain from eating and drinking, can we smoke cigarettes etc?
By mainstream Muslims it is considered a gray area leaning towards no. Mukroo or whatever.
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Peace hafeez kazi
Pronoun "hu" does not mean "in it" but "he or it". So the translation becomes "so he should fast it". So how one can fast "al-shahar" - traditionally translated as the month?
May Allah help us understanding His book.
Peace Novice,
True, I agree with you.
May Allah increase our knowledge and guide us on His path pr
mmKhan -
Peace
Each individual has the right to follow what he believes. There is no problem if someone fast for thirty days or 365 days that is his look out but as far as Quran is concerned it never says that a believer has to fast the whole month. For more than 1400 years the so called scholars have failed to interpret AYYAME MADUDAT.
For a certain number of days / Days numbered and few / (Fast) a certain number of days / a limited number of days./ (Fasting) for a fixed number of days.
Ask the scholars what is number of days / days number and few / certain number of days / limited number of days/ fixed number of days.
Why are they afraid of writing FULL MONTH OF RAMADHAN. or 30 days of Ramadhan or 29 days of Ramadhan.
Quran explicitly says AYYAME MADUDAT and AYYAME MADUDAT does not mean FULL MONTH/29/30 DAYS
And remember Allah on the days numbered. Then whosoever hastens in two days on him is no sin, and whosoever delayeth, On him is no sin this for him who feareth. So fear Allah, and know that verily unto Him shall ye be gathered. (2 203)
How many days to remember Allah during Hajj. Is it four months? Ask the scholars what is AYYAME MADUDAT and see what reply what you get.
Salam Bro Hafeez
Thank you so much for your explicit explanation.
Salam.
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Peace hafiz kazi
First of all no language can be translated word to word in other languages
True but here it is an explicit command of God to do siyam to shahru ramadan. We can draw logical conclusion in order to practice the ritual but are we following a direct command by doing so?
Literally if you translate then you are right because you cannot fast the month. Since the Quran was revealed IN the month of Ramadhan, the logical conclusion should be to fast IN the month of Ramadhan. If there would have been FIHI in the verse it would have an explicit command.
Why shaharu ramadan is translated as month of ramadan? The point to ponder is was there a month named ramadan among Arabs when Qur'an was revealed or was it a logical conclusion by later SCHOLARS? If we do not translate shahru ramazan word by word may be we can find a different explicit command. By the way Qur'an was revealed in lailat ul qadar as per 971.
May Allah help us understand His book
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OK, but, who are those before you? "as it was for the ones before you"... Jews don't fast that way, Christians fast only Wednesdays and Fridays I think... so it is still not clear...
ThanksIf you want to follow the fashion of the Jews and Christians, I think their ways will lead a person to lesser things.
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Quranicaly speaking no where it is asked to stop eating and drinking...at the contrary )
(all are Yusuf ali translations)
Definition of saum is given in 1926 to Marie
1926"So eat and drink and cool (thine) eye. And if thou dost see any man say `I have vowed a fast to (Allah) Most Gracious, and this day will I enter into no talk with any human being.'
about the number of days the example of Zacharie "sawming"
341He said "O my Lord! Give me a sign!" "Thy Sign" was the answer "shall be that thou shalt speak to no man for three days but with signals. Then celebrate the praises of thy Lord again and again and glorify Him in the evening and in the morning.
Maybe you concluded "quickly" from 2187 to fast from drinking and eating but
underlined the mis-translated word, in bold the statement and in red the interdictions
Permitted to you on the night of the fasts, is the approach to your wives. They are your garments. And ye are their garments. Allah knoweth what ye used to do secretly among yourselves; but He turned to you and forgave you; so now associate with them, and seek what Allah hath ordained for you and eat and drink, until the white thread of dawn appear to you distinct from its black thread; then complete your fast till the night appears; but do not associate with your wives while ye are in retreat in the mosques. Those are limits (set by) Allah; approach not nigh thereto. Thus doth Allah make clear His signs to men that they may learn self-restraint.Ok you gonna say but it is saying to "eat and drink, until the white thread of dawn appear to you distinct from its black thread; then complete your fast/siyam till the night appears!!!
Yeah right but siyam definition is in 1926, and eat and drink is even repeated and not forbidden!!!!!so my question where in the quran is it written to no eat and not drink????
regards,
Herbman -
"Ramadan Mubarak" not!
made me laugh.
