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  4. Can someone help me get the idea that a widower gets more money than widow

Can someone help me get the idea that a widower gets more money than widow

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  • U Offline
    U Offline
    unknownuser
    wrote on last edited by
    #1

    Doesn't it makes so much sense for a widow to get more money? 9/10 times a wife will be dependent on her husband, not the other way around, so her recieving less money makes no sense?
    How could it be a husband has more right on his wife's property than she on his? hypno
    I don't think this is a misunderstanding as this is mentioned pretty clear so I don't understand? Why is the husbands brother getting more than his own wife?
    I know a lot of you will say "oh she doesn't have to support herself" well that still doesn't seem fair so hoping you guys will be able to shed more answers to help me elektro
    Why does everything seem so unfair nope I wanna cry. Do you think Allah just doesn't like women and wants them to be poor/dependent. fftopic

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    • C Offline
      C Offline
      Comrox
      wrote on last edited by
      #2

      Great question.

      This is off the top of my head but I believe there's a verse which says if something were to happen to the marriage, the husband's responsible for her care for a year. Also accommodations must be made in the case of a potential or confirmed pregnancy since the child is also his.

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      • T Offline
        T Offline
        Timotheus
        wrote on last edited by
        #3

        Peace,

        Do you have verse references about this?

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        • H Offline
          H Offline
          huruf
          wrote on last edited by
          #4

          Yes that is the only case thatI havenoticed tht in fact the male getsmore. The only one.

          I thnk it is because of the need to not prejudice inheritors onany of the line. Thwife'smoney ishers all her life.That is she getsthe saddqafromher husband shen she marries, so that fortune of her husband which she gets and is hers is in fact detracted from the family of the husband. Whereas no money fromherlinegoes tothe family's husband.So in fct the inheritors of the husban would be prejudiced, females andmales.

          I think that is the reason. That she doesget the benefit from the dowry her husbandpays to her, but at the same timethat the inheritors in the line of the husband are not prejudiced once she is dead. To me that is the logical and fair reason for it. I have also read, not in thhis case but in others where people take care that both family lines in a marriage are not prejudiced in financial matters.

          Of course this is only valid where in fact here has been a transfer from the husbandsfamily line to the wife's,if not the reason fails and that is why we are enjoined in the Qur'an tomake afair will.

          Salaam

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          • H Offline
            H Offline
            huruf
            wrote on last edited by
            #5

            Peace,

            Do you have verse references about this?

            Look for the ayas on marriage,I think inmany Qur'an they are listed by matters at te end of the book. Yusuf's Ali translation has it, and it isvery helpful.

            Salaam

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            • M Offline
              M Offline
              Man_of_Faith
              wrote on last edited by
              #6

              If a woman's husband dies she carries on the legacy of them together as they were as one together. The children of theirs receive nothing until she is gone.

              And once the widow dies, the children receive an equal share between them irrespective of gender.

              Be well
              Qarael Amenuel

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              • M Offline
                M Offline
                Man_of_Faith
                wrote on last edited by
                #7

                It was clergymen and scribes who did not like women, not God.

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                • WakasW Offline
                  WakasW Offline
                  Wakas
                  wrote on last edited by
                  #8

                  If a woman's husband dies she carries on the legacy of them together as they were as one together. The children of theirs receive nothing until she is gone.

                  And once the widow dies, the children receive an equal share between them irrespective of gender.

                  Evidence for above two statements?

                  All information is correct to the best of my knowledge only and thus should not be taken as a fact. One should always seek knowledge and verify for themselves when possible: 17:36, 20:114, 35:28, 49:6, 58:11.

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                  • N Offline
                    N Offline
                    Noon_waalqalami
                    wrote on last edited by
                    #9

                    How could it be a husband has more right on his wife's property than she on his?

                    Peace, they i.e. wife/husband can leave entire amount to whomever otherwise...

                    412 and for you half what left spouses yours if not that be for them offspring so if be for them offspring so for you the fourth from what left they from after behest instructed they in it or judgment

                    1/2 husband + 1/2 parent/s
                    1/4 husband + 1/3 parent/s (1/6 each 411) + 5/12 child

                    ... and for them the fourth from what left you if not that be for you offspring so if be for you offspring so to them the eight from what left you from after behest thou making in it or judgment

                    Why is the husbands brother getting more than his own wife?

                    No, siblings only inherit kalala case i.e. if no spouse/child -- already answered in other post.

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                    • U Offline
                      U Offline
                      unknownuser
                      wrote on last edited by
                      #10

                      It was clergymen and scribes who did not like women, not God.

                      ofcourse ;'(. but this verse is directly from the quran. ;'(

                      please i feel bad to doubt god but this is confusing me ;'(

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                      • U Offline
                        U Offline
                        unknownuser
                        wrote on last edited by
                        #11

                        Peace, they i.e. wife/husband can leave entire amount to whomever otherwise...

                        412 and for you half what left spouses yours if not that be for them offspring so if be for them offspring so for you the fourth from what left they from after behest instructed they in it or judgment

                        1/2 husband + 1/2 parent/s
                        1/4 husband + 1/3 parent/s (1/6 each 411) + 5/12 child

                        ... and for them the fourth from what left you if not that be for you offspring so if be for you offspring so to them the eight from what left you from after behest thou making in it or judgment

                        No, siblings only inherit kalala case i.e. if no spouse/child -- already answered in other post.

                        please tell me so if a husband knows his wife will be financially insecure can he bequest ALL his money to his wife ? ;'( please tell me that is true because that sounds so much more fair in todays centuary so can he do that ;(

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                        • U Offline
                          U Offline
                          unknownuser
                          wrote on last edited by
                          #12

                          Peace,

                          Do you have verse references about this?

                          And for you is half of what your wives leave if they have no child. But if they have a child, for you is one fourth of what they leave, after any bequest they made or debt. And for the wives is one fourth if you leave no child. But if you leave a child, then for them is an eighth of what you leave, after any bequest you made or debt. And if a man or woman leaves neither ascendants nor descendants but has a brother or a sister, then for each one of them is a sixth. But if they are more than two, they share a third, after any bequest which was made or debt, as long as there is no detriment . an ordinance from Allah , and Allah is Knowing and Forbearing. 412

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                          • U Offline
                            U Offline
                            unknownuser
                            wrote on last edited by
                            #13

                            Peace, they i.e. wife/husband can leave entire amount to whomever otherwise...

                            412 and for you half what left spouses yours if not that be for them offspring so if be for them offspring so for you the fourth from what left they from after behest instructed they in it or judgment

                            1/2 husband + 1/2 parent/s
                            1/4 husband + 1/3 parent/s (1/6 each 411) + 5/12 child

                            ... and for them the fourth from what left you if not that be for you offspring so if be for you offspring so to them the eight from what left you from after behest thou making in it or judgment

                            No, siblings only inherit kalala case i.e. if no spouse/child -- already answered in other post.

                            hello. where does it say siblings will only inherit if there are no kids?
                            And for you is half of what your wives leave if they have no child. But if they have a child, for you is one fourth of what they leave, after any bequest they made or debt. And for the wives is one fourth if you leave no child. But if you leave a child, then for them is an eighth of what you leave, after any bequest you made or debt. And if a man or woman leaves neither ascendants nor descendants but has a brother or a sister, then for each one of them is a sixth. But if they are more than two, they share a third, after any bequest which was made or debt, as long as there is no detriment . an ordinance from Allah , and Allah is Knowing and Forbearing. 412

                            infact here it says the wife will get even less if she has kids '(. Please help me...I mean no disrespect but I dont understand how this is fair.

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                            • B Offline
                              B Offline
                              Bender
                              wrote on last edited by
                              #14

                              please tell me so if a husband knows his wife will be financially insecure can he bequest ALL his money to his wife ?

                              Of course he can.

                              When there is a will everything has to to be done according your will, if you don't make a will then people will decide for you according to their (understanding of their) book/law what will happen with your legacy.
                              So if you want my advice, make a will.

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                              • H Offline
                                H Offline
                                huruf
                                wrote on last edited by
                                #15

                                hello. where does it say siblings will only inherit if there are no kids?
                                And for you is half of what your wives leave if they have no child. But if they have a child, for you is one fourth of what they leave, after any bequest they made or debt. And for the wives is one fourth if you leave no child. But if you leave a child, then for them is an eighth of what you leave, after any bequest you made or debt. And if a man or woman leaves neither ascendants nor descendants but has a brother or a sister, then for each one of them is a sixth. But if they are more than two, they share a third, after any bequest which was made or debt, as long as there is no detriment . an ordinance from Allah , and Allah is Knowing and Forbearing. 412

                                infact here it says the wife will get even less if she has kids '(. Please help me...I mean no disrespect but I dont understand how this is fair.

                                Tthe text youhav quoted says it.

                                Both, the husband and the wife get less if the decesead leaves children behind then if he does not leave a child behind. The question about the wife getting less I explained somewhere else, it is the same here, othe only difference is that there is or there is not a child.

                                Salaam

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                                • M Offline
                                  M Offline
                                  Man_of_Faith
                                  wrote on last edited by
                                  #16

                                  ofcourse ;'(. but this verse is directly from the quran. ;'(

                                  please i feel bad to doubt god but this is confusing me ;'(

                                  Yes, it is, but we can always question ourselves if we really know what it says or if it is something that someone has tricked us into believing. My God is not a primitive being.

                                  Be well
                                  Qarael Amenuel

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                                  • M Offline
                                    M Offline
                                    Man_of_Faith
                                    wrote on last edited by
                                    #17

                                    Evidence for above two statements?

                                    The evidence is obviously in that it is a logical procedure of distribution. What else do you suggest?

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                                    • WakasW Offline
                                      WakasW Offline
                                      Wakas
                                      wrote on last edited by
                                      #18

                                      The evidence is obviously in that it is a logical procedure of distribution. What else do you suggest?

                                      Your opinion is not necessarily logical or Quranic. If making a claim that is not from Quran then this should be clearly stated.

                                      All information is correct to the best of my knowledge only and thus should not be taken as a fact. One should always seek knowledge and verify for themselves when possible: 17:36, 20:114, 35:28, 49:6, 58:11.

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                                      • N Offline
                                        N Offline
                                        Noon_waalqalami
                                        wrote on last edited by
                                        #19

                                        hello. where does it say siblings will only inherit if there are no kids?

                                        Peace -- focus one question at a time carefully read replies before posting perpetual questions.

                                        412 ... (kalla case of sibling heir/s)
                                        4176 they seeking decision your say the god gives ruling you in (the case of sibling heir/s) if person perished not is for said person offspring...

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                                        • U Offline
                                          U Offline
                                          unknownuser
                                          wrote on last edited by
                                          #20

                                          Peace -- focus one question at a time carefully read replies before posting perpetual questions.

                                          412 ... (kalla case of sibling heir/s)
                                          4176 they seeking decision your say the god gives ruling you in (the case of sibling heir/s) if person perished not is for said person offspring...

                                          sorry (

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