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  3. Questions/Comments on the Quran
  4. 5:5 is commonly mistranslated and misinterpreted as "People of the Book"

5:5 is commonly mistranslated and misinterpreted as "People of the Book"

Scheduled Pinned Locked Moved Questions/Comments on the Quran
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  • E Offline
    E Offline
    Euphoric
    wrote on last edited by
    #1

    Just want to make it clear...

    55 does NOT say
    "...And the food of the People of the Book is lawful for you, and your food is lawful for them..."

    55 actually said "...given the book/owtul kitaab..." not "people of the book/ahlul kitab"

    There is a difference between those "given the book" and "people of the book"

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    • G Offline
      G Offline
      good_logic
      wrote on last edited by
      #2

      A bit confusing?
      Here is an example
      GOD gave Moses the book, Moses people must have been given the book,
      GOD gave Mohammed the book Mohammed s people have been given the book.

      Can we assume that the book in both cases is the scripture?
      Then Jesus was also given the book,...etc.

      So people of the book are those that have been given the book/scripture .i.e This includes Jews, Christians Muslims.....
      If GOD is addressing one faction, it must be the book/people of the other factions . Otherwise GOD would have just said to them your food is good for you. Why would GOD say that your food is good for them? Who is them?

      Or did GOD say just a specific book? Which one?
      GOD bless.
      Peace.

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      • J Offline
        J Offline
        jkhan
        wrote on last edited by
        #3

        Just want to make it clear...

        55 does NOT say
        "...And the food of the People of the Book is lawful for you, and your food is lawful for them..."

        55 actually said "...given the book/owtul kitaab..." not "people of the book/ahlul kitab"

        There is a difference between those "given the book" and "people of the book"

        Peace... Yes you are right if they have translated in the place where Ahl occurs as "Those who were given the book" then translation is wrong... But meaning is not wrong.. If your concern is only that okay but if you feel these ahl kithab and owthul Kithab are two group of people then absolutely wrong speculation...

        365 O People of the Scripture, why do you argue about Abraham while the Torah and the Gospel were not revealed until after him? Then will you not reason?"

        Definitely "those who are given the book" and "the people of the book " are one and they are Yehudi and Nasara people in general... No argument about that within Quran.. If have bring it..

        Yes people of Muhamed also have been given book (Quran) but Allah never Adress them as people of book.. They are ummi.. The reason is I presume these people of the book or thoae who were given the book are generation and generation of people who were continuously given Messengers and prophets with messages and in the end it ended as Torah... So don't confuse...
        People of Mohamed are not people of the book.. God address "those who were given the book BEFFOR YOU(plural) .. That also Yehudi and nasara... Only problem for me is "Thosw who were given the PORTION of the book.. That I presume the people of Isa...

        Anyway.. No confusion... Yes translators may have mixed up but without intention sometimes..

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        • E Offline
          E Offline
          Euphoric
          wrote on last edited by
          #4

          People given the book weren't Jews, Christians or Muslims.

          Jesus was a false prophet he had no connection to God whatsoever.

          A bit confusing?
          Here is an example
          GOD gave Moses the book, Moses people must have been given the book,
          GOD gave Mohammed the book Mohammed s people have been given the book.

          Can we assume that the book in both cases is the scripture?
          Then Jesus was also given the book,...etc.

          So people of the book are those that have been given the book/scripture .i.e This includes Jews, Christians Muslims.....
          If GOD is addressing one faction, it must be the book/people of the other factions . Otherwise GOD would have just said to them your food is good for you. Why would GOD say that your food is good for them? Who is them?

          Or did GOD say just a specific book? Which one?
          GOD bless.
          Peace.

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          • E Offline
            E Offline
            Euphoric
            wrote on last edited by
            #5

            People given the book were never called Yahud and Nasara

            Definitely "those who are given the book" and "the people of the book " are one and they are Yehudi and Nasara people in general... No argument about that within Quran.. If have bring it..

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            • G Offline
              G Offline
              good_logic
              wrote on last edited by
              #6

              However Moses was given the book, so the people of Moses, Beni Israeel were given the book. Are they not the people of the book -of Moses-?
              Now do you mean it was Isa who was given the scripture/book/Injeel? so the people of ISA were given the book. Are they not the people of the book of Isa?
              By the way to me Jesus in English is Isa in Arabic.
              Same with The last prophet-Mohammed- .He was given the Qoran. His followers/people are they not the people of the book of Mohammed?

              This is a fact, so me or others, calling them Jews, Christians or Muslims is irrelevant and does not alter the fact that the three peoples above are people of the book /scripture .i.e they were given the book/scripture.
              As clear as day, people given the book are also people of the book.
              Sorry brother what you say does not make sense considering the above.
              Or may be what I say does not make sense to you?.
              GOD bless you.
              Peace

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              • J Offline
                J Offline
                jkhan
                wrote on last edited by
                #7

                People given the book were never called Yahud and Nasara

                Bring evidence.. Anyone can make statement... But what's the use?
                In your first thread you said just asking... Now you are confirmed...

                Explain who are these people of book and the those who are given book..

                Just read chapter 98.baiyyina ...fornsame people God used both phrases....
                Anyway bring evidence within Quran and explain if you want to..

                Just make a comparison verse 365 with
                verse 543
                Indeed, We sent down the Torah, in which was guidance and light. The prophets who submitted judged by it for the Jews, as did the rabbis and scholars by that with which they were entrusted of the Scripture of Allah, and they were witnesses thereto. So do not fear the people but fear Me, and do not exchange My verses for a small price. And whoever does not judge by what Allah has revealed – then it is those who are the disbelievers.

                Now 365 says people of the book.. And it is clearly stated what their books respectively. Yes Torah and Injeel..
                544 says Torah is preached to Yehudi.. So Yehudi people follow what? In fact they were following Torah.. Use common sense..
                Thank you.

                Additionally note below verse..

                Say, "O People of the Scripture, you are on nothing until you uphold the Torah, the Injeel, and what has been revealed to you from your Lord." And that which has been revealed to you from your Lord will surely increase many of them in transgression and disbelief. So do not grieve over the disbelieving people

                Compare it with 365...

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                • J Offline
                  J Offline
                  jkhan
                  wrote on last edited by
                  #8

                  However Moses was given the book, so the people of Moses, Beni Israeel were given the book. Are they not the people of the book -of Moses-?
                  Now do you mean it was Isa who was given the scripture/book/Injeel? so the people of ISA were given the book. Are they not the people of the book of Isa?
                  By the way to me Jesus in English is Isa in Arabic.
                  Same with The last prophet-Mohammed- .He was given the Qoran. His followers/people are they not the people of the book of Mohammed?

                  This is a fact, so me or others, calling them Jews, Christians or Muslims is irrelevant and does not alter the fact that the three peoples above are people of the book /scripture .i.e they were given the book/scripture.
                  As clear as day, people given the book are also people of the book.
                  Sorry brother what you say does not make sense considering the above.
                  Or may be what I say does not make sense to you?.
                  GOD bless you.
                  Peace

                  Don't bother asking him goodlogic...
                  Everyone has answer in Quran...
                  Read below verse carefully for the answer of highlighted question. ..
                  4153 The People of the Scripture ask you to bring down to them a book from the heaven. But they had asked of Moses greater than that and said, "Show us Allah outright," so the thunderbolt struck them for their wrongdoing. Then they took the calf after clear evidences had come to them, and We pardoned that. And We gave Moses a clear authority.

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