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  4. Muhammad not mentioned in the Koran...

Muhammad not mentioned in the Koran...

Scheduled Pinned Locked Moved Questions/Comments on the Quran
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    unknownuser
    wrote on last edited by
    #125

    Comparison is the name of the game?.where have you been?.?

    Only when its tit-for-tat, that is, talmud > bible > ahadiths. Where have YOU been??? Bibles cannot be compared to Quran, but Torah and Gospel can, if you can bring them forth.

    In addition, you are correct in acknowledging that the Koran is merely a repository for the previous Jewish and Christian scriptures?

    Only ahadiths by Bukhari, Malik, Saleh, Dawood, etc., acknowledges Paul, John, Mathew, Luke, etc.

    Unfortunately, your last comment regarding the Koran replacing what has been lost, is without Koranic support?

    The Quran supports itself by virtue of its own original script unchanged, whereas the bible, talmud and ahadiths are several-handed manipulations.

    I will take this as an admission that you don?t (or can?t) take the time necessary to discover what your book of faith truly states on the matter?

    From studying your viewpoints, I sincerely doubt that you have little knowledge of your own various editions/versions of your bible, similar to talmud and ahadiths; talk about Torah, Gospel and the Quran.

    Now you are to the point in which you are asking a Christian to inform you on what it states?.?

    A common trait in which a blind looks upon a seer.

    Here is more Koranic evidence that Jesus is God?
    http//www.free-minds.org/forum/viewtopic.php?p=28737#28737

    The "evidence" is your own pre-conceived biblical/hadithic heresies, NOT Quranic.

    How would you know if you can?t be bothered in understanding the mother-tongue of your book of faith?.?

    What makes you think that YOU have? Where is your Gospel, the mother-tongue of your book of faith in its original language? Are you relying upon what John, Mathew, Luke and Paul are spreading about in English? Did you know that Jesus never spoke English.

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      unknownuser
      wrote on last edited by
      #126

      Greetings Danish,

      Thanks for your reply?

      Apple Pie wrote

      Comparison is the name of the game?.where have you been?.?

      Only when its tit-for-tat, that is, talmud > bible > ahadiths. Where have YOU been??? Bibles cannot be compared to Quran, but Torah and Gospel can, if you can bring them forth.

      First of all, we all can see that you are dissed, however, we are discussing Islam?s alleged prophet in this thread? wink

      Secondly, the authors of the Koran made it known that they simply copied Biblical material?

      Quote
      In addition, you are correct in acknowledging that the Koran is merely a repository for the previous Jewish and Christian scriptures?

      Only ahadiths by Bukhari, Malik, Saleh, Dawood, etc., acknowledges Paul, John, Mathew, Luke, etc.

      Don?t forget to mention the authors of the Koran, as well?

      Quote
      Unfortunately, your last comment regarding the Koran replacing what has been lost, is without Koranic support?

      The Quran supports itself by virtue of its own original script unchanged, whereas the bible, talmud and ahadiths are several-handed manipulations.

      The only redeeming feature of the Koran is that it mainly copied Biblical material?

      Even as such?..the Koran is still second-hand re-translated scriptures?

      Who wants to settle for second-hand information when we have its source, the Holy Bible? wink

      Quote
      Here is more Koranic evidence that Jesus is God?
      http//www.free-minds.org/forum/viewtopic.php?p=28737#28737

      The "evidence" is your own pre-conceived biblical/hadithic heresies, NOT Quranic.

      Actually, it?s all Koranic?..but?.how would you know??you are presently consumed with rage at the truth that I speak?

      Take good care of yourself?

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        unknownuser
        wrote on last edited by
        #127

        Peace,

        Comparison is the name of the game?.where have you been?.?

        Only when its tit-for-tat, that is, talmud > bible > ahadiths. Where have YOU been??? Bibles cannot be compared to Quran, but Torah and Gospel can, if you can bring them forth.

        First of all, we all can see that you are dissed, however, we are discussing Islam?s alleged prophet in this thread? wink

        That goes for your alleged god, Jesus, the dissing part of the dead which mankind have witnessed first hand. wink

        Secondly, the authors of the Koran made it known that they simply copied Biblical material?

        Acutally, the authors of the biblical materials made it known that they simply copied talmudic materials, similar to ahadiths, unlike Quran (the original and final revelation still in existance).

        Quote
        In addition, you are correct in acknowledging that the Koran is merely a repository for the previous Jewish and Christian scriptures?

        Only ahadiths by Bukhari, Malik, Saleh, Dawood, etc., acknowledges Paul, John, Mathew, Luke, etc.

        Don?t forget to mention the authors of the Koran, as well?

        The Quran speaks for itself and we all know too well the Author of the Quran, unlike the bible and talmud.

        Quote
        Unfortunately, your last comment regarding the Koran replacing what has been lost, is without Koranic support?

        The Quran supports itself by virtue of its own original script unchanged, whereas the bible, talmud and ahadiths are several-handed manipulations

        The only redeeming feature of the Koran is that it mainly copied Biblical material?

        Redemption of the Quran can only be distinguished by previous ORIGINAL SCRIPTURES, not biblical and talmudic materials written by unscrupulous men. Unfortunately, the previous ORIGINAL SCRIPTURES (Torah and Gospel) are non-existant, hence the Quran takes the precedence.

        Even as such?..the Koran is still second-hand re-translated scriptures?

        Must be the second-hand various re-invented versions (testaments) of bible in comparison to the one and only Quran, not to mention the one and only Gospel. Perhaps you are referring to the various translations/interpretations of it in various languages, which are not original, or even ahadiths of biblical nature.

        Who wants to settle for second-hand information when we have its source, the Holy Bible? wink

        You do, like your many versions of bibles, copied and penned from talmudic sources, in contrast with ahadiths.

        Here is more Koranic evidence that Jesus is God?
        http//www.free-minds.org/forum/viewtopic.php?p=28737#28737

        The "evidence" is your own pre-conceived biblical/hadithic heresies, NOT Quranic.

        Actually, it?s all Koranic?..but?.how would you know??you are presently consumed with rage at the truth that I speak?

        Your 'truth' is revered by conjectural, inconsistant and heretic copied materials (bibles), NOT by Jesus himself. Check out the link I posted in Christianity section of this forum and try refuting your own book of faith.

        Take good care of yourself?

        You too and be sincere and true to yourself.

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          Ali_Omar
          wrote on last edited by
          #128

          Dear Apple Pie,

          What hinders you from looking into verse 33.40 yourself, as you, according to yourself, are ?more cognizant of Quran?ic scripture than most Muslims??

          As you seem reluctant, I must draw the conclusion that the verse states what I have already said. But then again, your overall statement seems baseless, although I do not like to conclude with such an assumption.

          Your ?Koranic? evidence is probably evidence to you but I can not find it, even though I am trying hard, and still re-reading what you suggested.
          I must commend you on the nice pictures, though, but your conclusions are very far-fetched, from what I can see, but I keep my hopes up, and continue vigorously and haven?t given up yet.
          You draw attention to the name of Chapters. These are not part of God?s message. (just for your information)

          It would be interesting to know how you came to the conclusion that I don?t have any understanding of Arabic.
          By the way, how do you know what my mother-tongue is?

          Also, why are you so unwilling to assist me in my search for more knowledge? I do not need conjecture, which is found in abundance many other places. I hope to have tangible facts, or at least indices pointing towards a logical deduction.
          You give very little of that, why? When you know the Qur?an better than most ?Muslims?, you must be a fountain of knowledge, please do not be stingy!

          Best regards

          Ali Omar

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            Ali_Omar
            wrote on last edited by
            #129

            Dear Apple Pie,

            I have studied what you have explained but am still at loss. In order to get Sura 86 to fit into your picture, you assume too many things that are not there, many of them mentioned in the answers you have already received from others.

            One thing that is beyond doubt is that you assume the Bible (whichever version you are holding) is divine. Therefore it would be of interest to know exactly which version do you use?
            Was the original of it written before, or after the Qur?an?
            Where can I find the original of it?

            The reason for asking is that it looks like some of the words of your Bible have borrowed expressions from the Qur?an.
            This may well be connected to the fact that in the days when Islam was a World-power, many of the existing Bibles were actually written in Arabic and was thought to Christian students by Arabs. Whereas the Qur?an still exists in, mainly, the same form now, as it was before that era.

            Another thing that I have forgotten to comment on was your notion of ?time?. God never created ?time?, as ?time? does not exist, only changes without beginning and without end.
            When something is coming into ?existence?, we say that time begins for this ?existence?, and time ends when it does not ?exist? any more.
            This is not so, let us say that a human is borne, lives and dies. Time has not passed for this human, it has only gone through a number of changes, and if we could follow the track of this human before its birth we would go through many generations of people and end up in eternity.
            When the same human being dies, changes continue for this human being until eternity. Time doesn?t begin or stop, it is just a concept we use because we can not grasp ?eternity?, and must, therefore, find a way to limit it.

            A short story demonstrating a time-less ?cycle?

            In a forest, a tree was marked and cut down. It went to a paper-mill.
            The product that came out from there was tissue paper. A fellow went into the woods one day and got very sweat. He used the tissue paper, that came from the said tree, to wipe his face, and threw it away. Due to ?nature?s forces?, the tissue paper went through stages of decomposition until it became indistinguishable from the soil around it. A seed fell on it from a tree above. The seed grew and fed on, among other things also the decomposed tissue paper, until it became big enough to be marked and cut and was sent to the paper-mill??????..
            When did ?time? begin and end, was it when natures building blocks were joined in the form of a tree or a tissue paper, and when did ?time? end?

            Time has never been created, and it does not exist. It is just our concept of it that exists. Time is actually merely a measure that we put on changes.
            Sorry for the side-track! This was not the main issue here, but maybe it goes to show that we may perceive things as real when they are not.

            Best regards

            Ali Omar

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              unknownuser
              wrote on last edited by
              #130

              Greetings Ali Omar,

              Thanks for your replies?

              Dear Apple Pie,

              What hinders you from looking into verse 33.40 yourself, as you, according to yourself, are ?more cognizant of Quran?ic scripture than most Muslims??

              As you seem reluctant, I must draw the conclusion that the verse states what I have already said. But then again, your overall statement seems baseless, although I do not like to conclude with such an assumption.

              Here?let me get you started?

              Please show us Islam?s ?prophet??..and how he's supposed to be a ?prophet??.

              Your ?Koranic? evidence is probably evidence to you but I can not find it, even though I am trying hard, and still re-reading what you suggested.
              I must commend you on the nice pictures, though, but your conclusions are very far-fetched, from what I can see, but I keep my hopes up, and continue vigorously and haven?t given up yet.
              You draw attention to the name of Chapters. These are not part of God?s message. (just for your information)

              Specifics?please?.

              It would be interesting to know how you came to the conclusion that I don?t have any understanding of Arabic.

              It?s pretty clear from your posts?

              By the way, how do you know what my mother-tongue is?

              It?s not Arabic?

              Also, why are you so unwilling to assist me in my search for more knowledge?

              We are all here to learn from each other.

              It would help if you put some effort into your replies?

              I do not need conjecture, which is found in abundance many other places. I hope to have tangible facts, or at least indices pointing towards a logical deduction.
              You give very little of that, why? When you know the Qur?an better than most ?Muslims?, you must be a fountain of knowledge, please do not be stingy!

              Great?

              Again?.what specifically is bothering you?..?

              I have studied what you have explained but am still at loss. In order to get Sura 86 to fit into your picture, you assume too many things that are not there, many of them mentioned in the answers you have already received from others.

              Care to give specific examples?blanket generalization means nothing?

              One thing that is beyond doubt is that you assume the Bible (whichever version you are holding) is divine.

              The Holy Bible is divinely inspired, yes.

              The Koran is not.

              Therefore it would be of interest to know exactly which version do you use?

              I hold to the canonized 66 books?

              Was the original of it written before, or after the Qur?an?

              Before, just as the authors who penned the Koran, confirmed for us?

              Where can I find the original of it?

              The extant manuscripts can be ?googled? from the web?

              The reason for asking is that it looks like some of the words of your Bible have borrowed expressions from the Qur?an.

              Now...that would be a neat trick?as the Holy Bible was canonized centuries BEFORE the Koran was even penned by its authors?

              In addition, the authors of the Koran flat-out tell us that they copied the previous Jewish and Christian scriptures?

              Unless you want to call into question the authors of the Koran? wink

              This may well be connected to the fact that in the days when Islam was a World-power, many of the existing Bibles were actually written in Arabic and was thought to Christian students by Arabs. Whereas the Qur?an still exists in, mainly, the same form now, as it was before that era.

              Since there are no extant Korans in existence anywhere in the known world, and the earliest dated Koran is a mere FRAGMENT of a sura dating to a century AFTER the supposed life and times of Islam?s ?prophet?, then your assertion would be impossible to prove as truth?

              This is yet another destroyed Muslim myth from Islam 101?

              Another thing that I have forgotten to comment on was your notion of ?time?. God never created ?time?, as ?time? does not exist, only changes without beginning and without end.
              When something is coming into ?existence?, we say that time begins for this ?existence?, and time ends when it does not ?exist? any more.
              This is not so, let us say that a human is borne, lives and dies. Time has not passed for this human, it has only gone through a number of changes, and if we could follow the track of this human before its birth we would go through many generations of people and end up in eternity.
              When the same human being dies, changes continue for this human being until eternity. Time doesn?t begin or stop, it is just a concept we use because we can not grasp ?eternity?, and must, therefore, find a way to limit it.

              A short story demonstrating a time-less ?cycle?

              In a forest, a tree was marked and cut down. It went to a paper-mill.
              The product that came out from there was tissue paper. A fellow went into the woods one day and got very sweat. He used the tissue paper, that came from the said tree, to wipe his face, and threw it away. Due to ?nature?s forces?, the tissue paper went through stages of decomposition until it became indistinguishable from the soil around it. A seed fell on it from a tree above. The seed grew and fed on, among other things also the decomposed tissue paper, until it became big enough to be marked and cut and was sent to the paper-mill??????..
              When did ?time? begin and end, was it when natures building blocks were joined in the form of a tree or a tissue paper, and when did ?time? end?

              Time has never been created, and it does not exist. It is just our concept of it that exists. Time is actually merely a measure that we put on changes.
              Sorry for the side-track! This was not the main issue here, but maybe it goes to show that we may perceive things as real when they are not.

              Great?.a Muslim philosopher?

              Perhaps you could refute the most proven principles in all of physics for us?.SR & GR?

              Then we will see who has the best evidence that time itself had a beginning??and that it will have an end?.just as stated in the Holy Bible?.

              Thanks?

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                unknownuser
                wrote on last edited by
                #131

                Hello Apple Pie,

                Would you care to tackle those contradictions and errors from The Bible that I posted earlier in this thread? You never did answer any of my inquiries about those issues.

                Care to try?

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                  unknownuser
                  wrote on last edited by
                  #132

                  Start a new thread with your webpasted insecurities... lol

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                    unknownuser
                    wrote on last edited by
                    #133

                    PEACE, APPLE PIE,

                    I just happened upon this thread and I two quesions for you

                    1. Are you saying that Muhammad, was not a prophet? If so, what is your evidence of this?

                    2. Correct me if I'm wrong but, isn't Jesus being fully God and fully man the core tenet of Christianity? 1Thess.521, demands that the upholders of your scriptures...prove all things. Given that the core tenet of Christianity posits Jesus being fully God and fully human , hence, a "dual nature" nature, would you produce the verse where I can find the word "God-man? Mind you now, if you can find this word , it must agree with the Greek or Latin scripture, where the word "theoanthropos" is clearly/explicitly written there.

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                      unknownuser
                      wrote on last edited by
                      #134

                      Start a new thread with your webpasted insecurities... lol

                      Below is the link to the thread where the debate has started. Come and get some.

                      http//www.free-minds.org/forum/viewtopic.php?p=46681#46681

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                        Ali_Omar
                        wrote on last edited by
                        #135

                        Dear Apple Pie,

                        If we have agreed that by the word ?nabi? is meant ?prophet?, then why don?t you make an effort to read the Arabic script?
                        Something you claim to be able to, which I sincerely doubt, but that is of no importance.

                        If God says ?this? human is a prophet, well, who are you to argue?
                        The God-father?

                        Quote
                        We are all here to learn from each other.

                        Allow me to doubt this statement from you.
                        The only thing you have shared with others, is your conviction of the Bible being divinely inspired and the Qur?an not.
                        Without any base in reality you further insinuate that Surah 86 is about Jesus. I would not even call it far-fetched, it is utterly deceiving.
                        The good ?Paul of the Bible? must have really struck you as something extraordinary. In that case I agree with you, but to me extraordinary sly.
                        Or maybe it was Peter?
                        It could not have been ?Jesus-God? because he is not accused of writing anything in the Bible.

                        Please show me how the Bible can be divine, i.e. its contents are from God.

                        By the way, where in the Qur?an is your Bible mentioned?

                        Quote
                        Unless you want to call into question the authors of the Koran?

                        What I call into question is your wild assumptions, worthy of a Shakespeare, and the canonizing authorities.
                        Who were they, and on whose authority could they canonize anything?
                        Oh, forgive my ignorance, the ?popes?, of course?
                        If the whole ?pope-thing? was not so tragic it would have been a good comedy.

                        You would not understand the concept of time, I?m afraid, so I will leave that alone. But, just in case you should come across some, please spare me an extra hour or two, to compensate for the TIME I consider wasted on this discussion so far.

                        Lastly, I do not need any answer on the questions; they are just for your reflection. I will not waste any more time on ?idle talk? like this discussion has been.
                        Have a good life and try to stay in the reality of our Universe.

                        Best regds

                        Ali Omar

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                          unknownuser
                          wrote on last edited by
                          #136

                          Greetings PRIEST_BOKMEI,

                          Thanks for adding your comments?

                          1. Are you saying that Muhammad, was not a prophet?

                          The Koran never mentions anything about Islam?s prophet?

                          If so, what is your evidence of this?

                          The lack of Koranic evidence?

                          1. Correct me if I'm wrong but, isn't Jesus being fully God and fully man the core tenet of Christianity? 1Thess.521, demands that the upholders of your scriptures...prove all things. Given that the core tenet of Christianity posits Jesus being fully God and fully human , hence, a "dual nature" nature, would you produce the verse where I can find the word "God-man? Mind you now, if you can find this word , it must agree with the Greek or Latin scripture, where the word "theoanthropos" is clearly/explicitly written there.

                          Strawman?

                          Thanks?

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                            unknownuser
                            wrote on last edited by
                            #137

                            YooHoo...Apple Pie,

                            http//www.free-minds.org/forum/viewtopic.php?t=3661

                            I hope to see you there.

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                              unknownuser
                              wrote on last edited by
                              #138

                              PEACE, APPLE PIE,

                              Thanks for adding your comments?

                              Anytime.

                              The Koran never mentions anything about Islam?s prophet?The lack of Koranic evidence?

                              What do you mean Al-Quran never mentions anything about the Prophet?

                              1. Correct me if I'm wrong but, isn't Jesus being fully God and fully man the core tenet of Christianity? 1Thess.521, demands that the upholders of your scriptures...prove all things. Given that the core tenet of Christianity posits Jesus being fully God and fully human , hence, a "dual nature" nature, would you produce the verse where I can find the word "God-man? Mind you now, if you can find this word , it must agree with the Greek or Latin scripture, where the word "theoanthropos" is clearly/explicitly written there.

                              Strawman?

                              Sorry, that kind of cop-out simply is not going to cut it, Pie. You want to tell us that there is no evidence of the Prophet in Al-Quran, yet, you cannot even prove the most fundamental tenet of your belief...the dual nature nature of Jesus! That's a...huge problem ...not a strawman.

                              I suggest before you question us that...you have your own paradigm in order.

                              Peace.

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                                unknownuser
                                wrote on last edited by
                                #139

                                Greetings PRIEST_BOKMEI,

                                Thanks for your reply?

                                Quote
                                The Koran never mentions anything about Islam?s prophet?The lack of Koranic evidence?

                                What do you mean Al-Quran never mentions anything about the Prophet?

                                Just what I said?

                                Quote
                                2. Correct me if I'm wrong but, isn't Jesus being fully God and fully man the core tenet of Christianity? 1Thess.521, demands that the upholders of your scriptures...prove all things. Given that the core tenet of Christianity posits Jesus being fully God and fully human , hence, a "dual nature" nature, would you produce the verse where I can find the word "God-man? Mind you now, if you can find this word , it must agree with the Greek or Latin scripture, where the word "theoanthropos" is clearly/explicitly written there.

                                Quote
                                Strawman?

                                Sorry, that kind of cop-out simply is not going to cut it, Pie. You want to tell us that there is no evidence of the Prophet in Al-Quran, yet, you cannot even prove the most fundamental tenet of your belief...the dual nature nature of Jesus! That's a...huge problem ...not a strawman.

                                I suggest before you question us that...you have your own paradigm in order.

                                You have two strawmen working here?

                                The first is that Islam actually thinks that their ?prophet? is mentioned as such in the Koran.

                                The second is the coining of a term that you demand be found in the Holy Bible?

                                You can do better than this?

                                Take care?

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                                  shuaib
                                  wrote on last edited by
                                  #140

                                  salam PRIEST_BOKMEI,

                                  It is amusing isn't it? You would think what's good for the goose is good for the gander... i.e., he wants a specific verse in the Quran that says the Muhammad is a prophet etc... yet in the same breath claims the Bible does not need to state the dual nature of Jesus.

                                  But his responses should just show you that he's obviously not serious about discussing it. I'm sure he's having a dandy ol' time trying to get under our skins, his only true goal.

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                                    unknownuser
                                    wrote on last edited by
                                    #141

                                    PEACE, APPLE PIE,

                                    The first is that Islam actually thinks that their ?prophet? is mentioned as such in the Koran.

                                    Again, what do you mean by this?

                                    The second is the coining of a term that you demand be found in the Holy Bible?You can do better than this?

                                    Yes, I demand to see the Greek or Latin verse, where the fundamental tenet of Christianity, that being, Jesus had/has... "dual nature" nature, or, in a word, theoanthropos. You see, it my understanding that, the bible mentions three natures, all of which, can be found in the Greek

                                    1. theos...God Almighty.

                                    2. pneumatikos...angels/Holy Ghost.

                                    3. anthropos...fully human.

                                    Now, can you produce the verse where I can find

                                    1. theoanthropos...fully God and fully human.

                                    If not, then you violate 1Thess. 521...prove all things...

                                    If you can prove item #4, by way of your Greek scriptures , then you cannot prove the authenticity/legitimacy of your belief sytem. Without proof, all you have is conjecture...and that is the bottomline, Pie.

                                    Just your saying...strawman, does not at all refute my position nor does it defend/establish/prove yours. Certainly, you can do better than you have. wink

                                    Peace-

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                                      unknownuser
                                      wrote on last edited by
                                      #142

                                      PEACE, SHUAIB,

                                      salam PRIEST_BOKMEI,

                                      It is amusing isn't it? You would think what's good for the goose is good for the gander... i.e., he wants a specific verse in the Quran that says the Muhammad is a prophet etc... yet in the same breath claims the Bible does not need to state the dual nature of Jesus.

                                      But his responses should just show you that he's obviously not serious about discussing it. I'm sure he's having a dandy ol' time trying to get under our skins, his only true goal.

                                      Of course you are correct, Shuaib. I don't think he was prepared for that question.

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                                        unknownuser
                                        wrote on last edited by
                                        #143

                                        Greetings PRIEST_BOKMEI,

                                        Thanks for your reply?

                                        PEACE, APPLE PIE,
                                        Quote
                                        The first is that Islam actually thinks that their ?prophet? is mentioned as such in the Koran.

                                        Again, what do you mean by this?

                                        Perhaps (as you are new to this thread) you need to read through the entirety of the thread in order to understand what I have been saying?

                                        Quote
                                        The second is the coining of a term that you demand be found in the Holy Bible?You can do better than this?

                                        Yes, I demand to see the Greek or Latin verse, where the fundamental tenet of Christianity, that being, Jesus had/has... "dual nature" nature, or, in a word, theoanthropos. You see, it my understanding that, the bible mentions three natures, all of which, can be found in the Greek

                                        1. theos...God Almighty.

                                        2. pneumatikos...angels/Holy Ghost.

                                        3. anthropos...fully human.

                                        Now, can you produce the verse where I can find

                                        1. theoanthropos...fully God and fully human.

                                        If not, then you violate 1Thess. 521...prove all things...

                                        If you can prove item #4, by way of your Greek scriptures , then you cannot prove the authenticity/legitimacy of your belief sytem. Without proof, all you have is conjecture...and that is the bottomline, Pie.

                                        Just your saying...strawman, does not at all refute my position nor does it defend/establish/prove yours. Certainly, you can do better than you have.

                                        Islam 101?.right on cue.

                                        You have just coined a new term by merging previous words?.and now you demand that this new term be found in the Holy Bible?

                                        This is what I mean by your strawman argument.

                                        This would be like me asking you to show me the word ?Trinity? in the Koran.

                                        You obviously would have a position regarding it?.however, the word is NOT found in the Koran?.however, the concept is?just as it is in the Holy Bible?

                                        Hence, you would have a completely formed opinion on the matter even though the word is not called-out in your book of faith.

                                        Same goes for your clich?? and pathetic Muslim ?theoanthropos? argument?as the concept is there in both the Koran and the Holy Bible?but not the coined word?

                                        You would do better coming up with some original and sensible ?arguments? of your own?

                                        As far as Islam?s ?prophet? is concerned, we can all clearly see that he is never mentioned as such in their book of faith?..not piecemeal?..not even together?and certainly not juxtaposed?.and yet, Muslims take it for granted that they even had a so-called ?prophet? who received the Koran, in the first place.

                                        Read your Koran?.it is clear that the authors copied/collected the previous Jewish and Christian scriptures?.who needs a ?prophet? to do this?..?

                                        Thanks?

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                                          shuaib
                                          wrote on last edited by
                                          #144

                                          salam guys,

                                          i'm sure everyone is familiar with Ahmed Deedat's debates. He has done a lot of work compiling interesting facts about Christianity. He made the following statement/challenge

                                          There is not a single unequivocal statement throughout the Bible, in all its 66 volumes of the Protestant versions, or in the 73 volumes of the Roman Catholic versions, where Jesus claims to be God or where he says "worship me". Nowhere does he say that he and God Almighty "are one" and "the same person."

                                          http//jamaat.net/cis/ChristInIslam.html

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