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  4. INheritance Laws-- Overlap?

INheritance Laws-- Overlap?

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  • U Offline
    U Offline
    unknownuser
    wrote on last edited by
    #9

    As Salaam Alaikum,

    Alaikom Al Salam Bro

    Wow brother, that makes a whole lot of since now! It really does.

    I agree from one point which is just to prove that it can't be a mistake as the critics of islam promote, however I have not provided any details regarding the whole inhertance laws, but as showed you that it can't be a mistake because it is not covering everything rather it still require people who knows the Fiqh very well to produce a complete reference regarding the inhertance laws

    But this one kind of disturbs me...

    In surha 411 it says that if there are onyl daughters they get 2/3, and the parents get 1/6 each if deceased left children.

    Adding everything up... the wife would be excluded from the inheritance???

    ok let's work it out step by step

    the deceased left only one daughter, his parents, a wife and no sons

    in this case

    The daughter will take 1/2

    each of the parents will take 1/6 = 1/3

    total will be 3/6 + 2/6 = 5/6, i.e there will be 1/6 that can be distributed on others including the wife

    if there was more than one dauhter, then yes the wife will take nothing

    indeed I found this a common practice in Egypt, however the wife can be allocated a portion by the deceased in his will before he dies, and certainly most husbands do that in Egypt, some don't btw and all his estate goes to the children and the parents if they still alive

    now if a man alocated 1/10 to his wife in his will, then before the devide the state according to what we dicussed above that 1/10 must be put aside and the percentages will be wroked out on the rest of his estate

    I remember my grandpa didn't leave any for my grandma, and all the money went to the children "all married adults" about 5 of them, and my grandman was very upset because he didn't allocate a portion for her in his will, however her kids took care of her

    thought just crossed my mind

    very valid thoughts but as I explained to you if the wife is good and the husband is good and both fear Allah then most likely the husband will allocate a portion to her in his will and that will be put aside then divide the rest accordingly

    the wife actually in many occasions ends up taking more than the kids if the deseaced allocated say 50% to her in his will, consequently the children and the parents "if any" will share 50% only

    Actually when i am thinking about it, it may not be really unjustifiable and cruel, the reason is becuase the man is actually suppose to bequest a year of accomodation for her (therefore her share will be taken out when it people pay off his debts, etc,). I guess she is expected to remarry.

    yes it is a possibility for her to re-marry but only if she is still young, in most cases she will be old and deprived from beauty consequently the deceased must do the honorable thing and allocate a portion to her and as you can see that the Quran stresses that any will from the deseased must be paid in full prior to dividing the rest of the estate

    wow things make alot more since now. I still need to add up things for myself again... but yea, that makes so much since.

    salaam

    I hope I added more sense

    Salam Brother, I'm impressed by how young are you and how keen you are to know your religion the right way, Allah bless you bro and make it easy for you

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    • U Offline
      U Offline
      unknownuser
      wrote on last edited by
      #10

      Maybe you could take something from the business world.

      For example if you own 1/10 or 1/1000 of a company and there are no other shareholders that means you own 100%.

      If you owned 1/2 and someones else 1/4. It doesn't mean the 1/4 is unclaimed. It would mean that you own twice as much as the other guy.

      You'd get the same result if you owned 1/10 and your partner 1/20.

      This way of working allows much greater flexibility.

      I believe the shares values in Quran are given relative to one another and not the inheritance - the reason being that it starts of by comparing the share of the brother to the sister which is 21.

      So if a man dies and leaves only a daughter and no other family, then her share relative to the others is 1/2. Since there are no other share holders it means she will get 100% of the inheritance.

      but if her mother were alive then then you have two shareholders
      at 1/2 1/8. Meaning the daugher will get four times as much as the mother. So if the old man left 10 dinars then the mother will get 1/8 dinar for every 1/2 the daughter gets.

      Taking your example the shares are

      2/3 1/6 1/6 1/8

      lets combine the parents for ease.

      2/3 1/3 1/8

      Meaning the girls get twice as much as the parents but the wife still gets 1/8 for every 2/3 the girls get.

      Peace.

      Thank you bro

      your comment is very worthy to check out and I will thoroughly

      Peace be with you

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      • U Offline
        U Offline
        unknownuser
        wrote on last edited by
        #11

        As SAlaam ALaikum,

        But then again... if the Quran is saying "no decendant or accendants" then such and such goes to siblings....... what about the spouses?

        According to the verse, they will take nothing UNLESS THE DECEASED HAS ALLOCATED A PORTION TO HER IN HIS WILL and consequently it has to be finalised first before dividing the rest

        Can the spouse only inherit if the deceased left parents, but no child or if the deceased left a child?

        I believe the wife can legally inherit ? if the deceased didn?t leave any children
        And if the deceased left one child then she will be entitled to 1/8

        When can a spouse inherit?

        The wife can inherit in all cases if the deceased allocated a portion in his will specifically to her, this will take priority over the rest of the family

        In addition to the above she may be entitled to the following as well

        -> If there one child only she will take 1/8

        -> No child at all she will take 1/4

        In arabic, does "ascendant" or "decandant" include spouse???

        the Arabic word was ?Waladun? and it only means children, spouse can not be included

        salaam

        Peace be with you

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        • N Offline
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          NoProgressive
          wrote on last edited by
          #12

          As SAlaam Alaikum Ahmed,

          the deceased left only one daughter, his parents, a wife and no sons

          in this case

          The daughter will take 1/2

          each of the parents will take 1/6 = 1/3

          total will be 3/6 + 2/6 = 5/6, i.e there will be 1/6 that can be distributed on others including the wife

          if there was more than one dauhter, then yes the wife will take nothing

          indeed I found this a common practice in Egypt, however the wife can be allocated a portion by the deceased in his will before he dies, and certainly most husbands do that in Egypt, some don't btw and all his estate goes to the children and the parents if they still alive

          now if a man alocated 1/10 to his wife in his will, then before the devide the state according to what we dicussed above that 1/10 must be put aside and the percentages will be wroked out on the rest of his estate

          Well actually since, this a case of just one child... wouldn't it be (at least) 1/2 to the daughter, 1/8th to the wife... and then he can distribute to his parents as he wished? Their numbers are only set when ther are more than one child (it's the wife's that isn't).

          salaam

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          • U Offline
            U Offline
            unknownuser
            wrote on last edited by
            #13

            As SAlaam Alaikum Ahmed,

            Alaikum Al SalaThe Inheritance laws is really hard and deep in the Quran bro, I know westerners who spent a few years to work it out and the outcome was they reverted to Islam just after working it out, there are many books about it bro, this is not something that can be discussed in a page or two it needs at least 50 pages because we will have to work out all the possibilities up to a logical point of how many children someone can have

            So what we are discussing is just scratching the surface and sure both of us will benefit

            Well actually since, this a case of just one child... wouldn't it be (at least) 1/2 to the daughter, 1/8th to the wife... and then he can distribute to his parents as he wished?

            He could have distributed all his will as he wished, ie. written in his will that so and so should take much and much, then if anything left after paying as such, verses 411-12 & 4176 should apply

            In fact adhering to the will of the deceased as he wished and documented IS A FIRST PRIORITY AS SEEN IN THE VERSES

            For example, imagine I have a factory, I can write in my will that this factory should be given to my wife, then she will have it and if there is nothing left, bad luck for my kids because that is what I wanted and has to be fulfilled according to the verses, and believe there are many who do this, it looks odd though doesn't it?

            So if there is one daughter left, a wife and two parents, I believe it should be as follow

            1. Pay any thing that the deceased explicitly allocated for any one,

            2. Pay any debts the deceased own then divide the rest as follow

            a) The daughter will take 1/2
            b) The parents will take 1/6 + 1/6 = 1/3
            c) The wife will take 1/8

            Total = 1/2 + 1/3 + 1/8 = 12/24 + 8/24 + 3/24 = 23/24

            Their numbers are only set when ther are more than one child (it's the wife's that isn't).

            salaam

            not sure about your question bro, can you elaborate please

            Peace

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            • U Offline
              U Offline
              unknownuser
              wrote on last edited by
              #14

              Taking your example the shares are

              2/3 1/6 1/6 1/8

              lets combine the parents for ease.

              2/3 1/3 1/8

              Meaning the girls get twice as much as the parents but the wife still gets 1/8 for every 2/3 the girls get.

              Peace.

              Hello Burhan

              can you please give me an example on an estate worth 1000 units?

              peace

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              • B Offline
                B Offline
                burhan
                wrote on last edited by
                #15

                Sure bro.

                Well its basic maths after that.

                Add up all the shareholders

                2/3

                1/3

                1/8


                9/8

                then multiply out the ratios like so.

                (induvidual share ratio)/(total shares ratios) * (total estate value) = (induvidual share value)

                2/3 * 8/9 * 1000 = 16/27 * 1000 = 593
                1/3 * 8/9 * 1000 = 8/27 * 1000 = 296
                1/8 * 8/9 * 1000 = 1/9 * 1000 = 111

                peace.

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                • U Offline
                  U Offline
                  unknownuser
                  wrote on last edited by
                  #16

                  Sure bro.

                  Well its basic maths after that.

                  Add up all the shareholders

                  2/3

                  1/3

                  1/8


                  9/8

                  then multiply out the ratios like so.

                  (induvidual share ratio)/(total shares ratios) * (total estate value) = (induvidual share value)

                  2/3 * 8/9 * 1000 = 16/27 * 1000 = 593
                  1/3 * 8/9 * 1000 = 8/27 * 1000 = 296
                  1/8 * 8/9 * 1000 = 1/9 * 1000 = 111

                  peace.

                  Thank you mate

                  now it is more clearer

                  peace be with you

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                  • E Offline
                    E Offline
                    Elke
                    wrote on last edited by
                    #17

                    Peace all;

                    one question i have no clear answer for yet is

                    do we only turn to the quranic inheritance laws when no will was drawn ?

                    Thanx in advance for your answers.

                    lk

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                    • U Offline
                      U Offline
                      unknownuser
                      wrote on last edited by
                      #18

                      Peace all;

                      one question i have no clear answer for yet is

                      do we only turn to the quranic inheritance laws when no will was drawn ?

                      Thanx in advance for your answers.

                      lk

                      Peace

                      in both cases of leaveing a will or not, the matter should be turned to the quranic inheritance laws

                      you can see that the laws say clearly to divide after honoring any will left by the deceased, ie. the deaceased may not leave a will, so the verse is covering both possibilities of leaving a will or not, hence we should refer to it regardless a will was left or not

                      Allah knows best

                      peace be with you

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                      • E Offline
                        E Offline
                        Elke
                        wrote on last edited by
                        #19

                        Peace,

                        what then if the will is already distributing all there is ?

                        lk

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                        • U Offline
                          U Offline
                          unknownuser
                          wrote on last edited by
                          #20

                          Peace,

                          what then if the will is already distributing all there is ?

                          lk

                          Peace

                          I don't understand your question, but I can have a guess at it by the following example

                          Assume that I have written the following will

                          "I want my dear wife to inherit all the estate I have"

                          now assume that I'm dead now, well according to the Quran and my will, my wife must take all my estate and bad luck to the others

                          me being fair or not is not the issue here, the issue is the Quran said we distribute what left after fulfilling the will of the deceased, if nothing left bad luck to whoever don't get a penny

                          peace

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                          • E Offline
                            E Offline
                            Elke
                            wrote on last edited by
                            #21

                            Salaam Ahmed,

                            you did understand my question. And i like your answer coz that's how i would interprete it ) .

                            Any other interpretation ?

                            Peace all,

                            lk

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