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  4. SALAT :FOR THE ATTENTION OF LAYTH.

SALAT :FOR THE ATTENTION OF LAYTH.

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  • K Offline
    K Offline
    kaamil
    wrote on last edited by
    #4

    Salat is obligatory on every Muslim (Q20132, 95, 3333)
    Those who abandon al-salat are not free of error, vice and misguidance.
    Salat help us to stay focus on our decision- the decision to worship Allah alone and live a life of righteousness base on His dictate and command.
    Mere exercise of standing, bowing and prostrating does not give us this focus because it is bereft of awareness. So it is ritual. To express love and gratitude to Allah is to follow His Will. We do not relate with God on the basis of give and take. To suppose that we have to pay physical reverence by Bowing and prostrating because of His gift of life, guidance and love is wrong. Such an act does not befit God but us human. Allah is independent of our needs (Q646) we are ever dependent on Him so whatever He asked of us is for ourselves. True worship to God unseen only involves understanding His Will and living in conformity to that Will. This is Islam. This is submission.
    Only studying and relating with God?s book sharpen our perception & keep us focused. Therefore an earnest study of al-Qur?an is true worship. It is al-salat.
    Salat is a form of Reminder that keep present in our eyes the fact of God-consciousness. Being God-conscious create in us a clear mental impression of our obligations and prevent us from transgressing due limit.
    Recitation of the Book and upholding al-salat are the same thing. Allah only uses upholding the salat in apposition to reading and reciting the Qur?an, as an additional explanation to strength it.
    7170 ?As for those who hold tight with the Book and uphold the salat ?.?
    2945 ?Recite what is reveal to you of the Book and uphold the salat ?.?
    3529 ?Surely those who recite the Book of God and uphold the salat??
    7320 ?Therefore read what is easy from it (Qur?an) and uphold the salat ??
    The fact that we must keep up reading and reciting Qur?an and never allow ourselves to be detached and distracted from it, is what Allah meant simply by upholding the salat.

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    • U Offline
      U Offline
      unknownuser
      wrote on last edited by
      #5

      Peace be upon you Kaamil,

      Being from nigeria, have you ever studied Yoruba?

      And a personal note, have you ever been to the Fela Kuti "temple"?

      Regarding salaat, if it was to read the book called "Quran", how did those before "Quran" perform salaat?

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      • M Offline
        M Offline
        mquran
        wrote on last edited by
        #6

        Salaamun alaikum Kaamil,

        You're quoting the ayaat carelessly, im sorry to say. Here's an exampleSalat is obligatory on every Muslim (Q20132, 95, 3333)

        How do any of the verses above validate your statement?

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        • K Offline
          K Offline
          kaamil
          wrote on last edited by
          #7

          Peace be upon you Kaamil,

          Being from nigeria, have you ever studied Yoruba?

          And a personal note, have you ever been to the Fela Kuti "temple"?

          Regarding salaat, if it was to read the book called "Quran", how did those before "Quran" perform salaat?

          It should please you to note that there has never been a nation without a message. If any intellegent person wishes to seek Allah he ll develop the will to learn by keeping the message before him and Allah's grace ll help him to carry it out in his conduct. this is salat this is how salat deters from evil and vice.

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          • K Offline
            K Offline
            kaamil
            wrote on last edited by
            #8

            Salaamun alaikum Kaamil,

            You're quoting the ayaat carelessly, im sorry to say. Here's an exampleSalat is obligatory on every Muslim (Q20132, 95, 3333)

            How do any of the verses above validate your statement?

            20135 salat is to be enjoin on the believers
            95 those who repent are to observe regular salat
            3333 prophets wives are to keep up regular salat.
            pls let me know how these ayat are out of contest.

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            • M Offline
              M Offline
              mquran
              wrote on last edited by
              #9

              20135 salat is to be enjoin on the believers
              95 those who repent are to observe regular salat
              3333 prophets wives are to keep up regular salat.
              pls let me know how these ayat are out of contest.

              Im assuming you mean 20/132 here, not 20/135, correct me if im wrong.

              Your original statement was

              Salat is obligatory on every Muslim (Q20132, 95, 3333)

              20/132Wa 'Mur 'Ahlaka Bi-alati Wa Aabir `Alayh . And command your ahl (family, or those connected to you) WITH as-salaat and seek endurance on it.

              It's telling you to command your family with as-salaat. Obligatory, muslim etc isn't in the verse. It doesn't assume your family are muslim.

              9/5 speaks of al-mushrikoon who return to thier ahd/covenant. It says IF they establish as-salaat, open the way for them.

              33/33 speaks of the prophet's wives and once again posits as-salaat.

              The word obligatory (arabic fardh) isnt any of these verses.

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              • K Offline
                K Offline
                kaamil
                wrote on last edited by
                #10

                20135 salat is to be enjoin on the believers
                95 those who repent are to observe regular salat
                3333 prophets wives are to keep up regular salat.
                pls let me know how these ayat are out of contest.

                Im assuming you mean 20/132 here, not 20/135, correct me if im wrong.

                Your original statement was

                Salat is obligatory on every Muslim (Q20132, 95, 3333)

                20/132Wa 'Mur 'Ahlaka Bi-alati Wa Aabir `Alayh . And command your ahl (family, or those connected to you) WITH as-salaat and seek endurance on it.

                It's telling you to command your family with as-salaat. Obligatory, muslim etc isn't in the verse. It doesn't assume your family are muslim.

                9/5 speaks of al-mushrikoon who return to thier ahd/covenant. It says IF they establish as-salaat, open the way for them.

                33/33 speaks of the prophet's wives and once again posits as-salaat.

                The word obligatory (arabic fardh) isnt any of these verses.

                Granted that all these people are muslims. Allah teaches tha Qur'an because one verse explain the other. in Q4102 or 103 salat is made incumbent on believers and not on any other person. the rationalisation is that only those who repent among the aggressors are those who realise Allah and turn to Him them they are to observe salat.
                the prophets wives are muslims they commanded to keep up regular salat.
                The prophet is to tell his people to keep up salat his people here or his family are the muslims.
                If saslat is not obligatory you please contest it by showing your proves from the Qur'an.
                May Allah gives you a good view and understanding of the issue in question

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                • WakasW Offline
                  WakasW Offline
                  Wakas
                  wrote on last edited by
                  #11

                  peace kaamil,

                  Thus far, in my opinion, you have not demonstrated salat is obligatory on muslims.

                  For an article on the signs of chapter 9 you are speaking about, see the following article.

                  All information is correct to the best of my knowledge only and thus should not be taken as a fact. One should always seek knowledge and verify for themselves when possible: 17:36, 20:114, 35:28, 49:6, 58:11.

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                  • M Offline
                    M Offline
                    mquran
                    wrote on last edited by
                    #12

                    Salaamun alaikum Wakas,

                    1. Would you say that 9/11's 'fa'in taabu waqamu as-salaat wa atu az-zakaat' the equivalent of 9/12' 'wa'in nakutsu aimaanuhum min ba'da ahdihim' because the former is the factor of 'them becoming ikhwaan' while the latter rescinds that state?

                    2. What would you call you 'ikhwaan fiddeen' ?

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                    • M Offline
                      M Offline
                      mquran
                      wrote on last edited by
                      #13

                      Granted that all these people are muslims. Allah teaches tha Qur'an because one verse explain the other. in Q4102 or 103 salat is made incumbent on believers and not on any other person. the rationalisation is that only those who repent among the aggressors are those who realise Allah and turn to Him them they are to observe salat.
                      the prophets wives are muslims they commanded to keep up regular salat.
                      The prophet is to tell his people to keep up salat his people here or his family are the muslims.
                      If saslat is not obligatory you please contest it by showing your proves from the Qur'an.
                      May Allah gives you a good view and understanding of the issue in question

                      Sorry, I'm not making myself clear here. I'm not saying as-salaat isnt obligatory (if you take 'obligatory' to mean 'defining factor'). Im just saying the verses you quoted doesn't prove that. 9/11 in my view proves that.

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                      • WakasW Offline
                        WakasW Offline
                        Wakas
                        wrote on last edited by
                        #14

                        peace mq,

                        1. I'm not sure I understand your question, please clarify.

                        2. brothers/fellows in the obligation/system

                        Wakas

                        All information is correct to the best of my knowledge only and thus should not be taken as a fact. One should always seek knowledge and verify for themselves when possible: 17:36, 20:114, 35:28, 49:6, 58:11.

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                        • M Offline
                          M Offline
                          mquran
                          wrote on last edited by
                          #15
                          1. I'm not sure I understand your question, please clarify

                          Ok.

                          9/11 says if they 'taabu', establish as-salaat, render az-zakaat THEN (fa) they are ur ikhwaan-fiddeen

                          So I take the factors toward being 'ikhwan fiddeen' to be to return to peace (opposite of qatl anyway - 48/16), establishment of as-salaat and rendering az-zakaat.

                          9/12 says 'if they violate their oaths after their covenant, and assail you in your deen' THEN FIGHT....

                          What I'm saying is the 2 possiblilities of relationships 'ikhwan fiddeen' and 'NOT ikhwaan fiddeen' is determined by

                          1. taabu/returning to peace in this case
                          2. establishment of as-salaat
                          3. rendering of az-zakaat

                          OR
                          4. violation of thier aymaan after thier ahd
                          5. assailment of ad-deen

                          So Im saying, do you think 1,2,3 immediately above is the OPPOSITE of 4,5?

                          1. brothers/fellows in the obligation/system

                          Ok, i call them muslimeen because
                          a. they were formerly in qitaal but now they are in islaam (48/16 again)
                          b. ad-deen inda Allah is al-islaam.

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                          • WakasW Offline
                            WakasW Offline
                            Wakas
                            wrote on last edited by
                            #16

                            peace mq,

                            Thanks for clarifying. I would say in this case 2 & 3 are opposite to 4 & 5.

                            The backdrop to these signs in chapter 9 is an established quranic system for the people. To me, this is what is being referred to with al-deen in 911.

                            Can I ask you, out of curiousity, why would al-deen be used in 911 and deenikum be used in 912? I know "deenikum" means 'your deen'. Is there no way of saying "al-deen" in both cases in Arabic? I ask because if you see "al-deen" as "al-islam", why say "your" in 912? Why not just say 'al-deen' for both?

                            Wakas

                            All information is correct to the best of my knowledge only and thus should not be taken as a fact. One should always seek knowledge and verify for themselves when possible: 17:36, 20:114, 35:28, 49:6, 58:11.

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                            • WakasW Offline
                              WakasW Offline
                              Wakas
                              wrote on last edited by
                              #17

                              peace mq,

                              I just noticed it says "fee" before "deen" in both cases. We are translating "fee" as "in" in 911, why not for 912?
                              So if we use your trans. of "assail" for "taAAanoo", shouldn't it be "assail in your deen", which would directly imply "deen" is a structure.

                              ??

                              From PRL
                              Tay-Ayn-Nun = to thrust, defame/discredit, to speak ill of someone, traducing, assail, revile, scoff, pierce, spear, wound, calumniate.

                              Wakas

                              All information is correct to the best of my knowledge only and thus should not be taken as a fact. One should always seek knowledge and verify for themselves when possible: 17:36, 20:114, 35:28, 49:6, 58:11.

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                              • M Offline
                                M Offline
                                mquran
                                wrote on last edited by
                                #18

                                Thanks for clarifying. I would say in this case 2 & 3 are opposite to 4 & 5.

                                Np Wakas. Ok, why not the 'taboo' (i.e. 1 as well as 2 &3) bit?

                                The backdrop to these signs in chapter 9 is an established quranic system for the people. To me, this is what is being referred to with al-deen in 911.

                                Sounds reasonable, agreed.

                                Can I ask you, out of curiousity, why would al-deen be used in 911 and deenikum be used in 912? I know "deenikum" means 'your deen'. Is there no way of saying "al-deen" in both cases in Arabic? I ask because if you see "al-deen" as "al-islam", why say "your" in 912? Why not just say 'al-deen' for both?

                                I've been aware of the problem of 'al' and this point, my opinion is that when they did 1,2 and 3, its the same for everyone, what you need to do to be in ad-deen, conceptually. However , they also committed the crime of 4&5, they havent done any damage to the conceptual of ad-deen, only the manifestation of ad-deen in the world. Ad-deen is a conceptual entity in the world, its absolutel. It's like 'as-salaat' and 'salatuhum'.

                                side note please look at 3/81, why is it just 'kitab' and 'hikmah' with no 'al' ?

                                And yes, ad-deen is al-islaam. To me this makes a muslim, iqamus-salaat, itaa'u az-zakaat. This makes most sense to me because 'aslama' works on a 'wajh' level (aslamtu WAJHIYA lillah..3/20)

                                many thanks for the thought provoking question.

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                                • M Offline
                                  M Offline
                                  mquran
                                  wrote on last edited by
                                  #19

                                  I just noticed it says "fee" before "deen" in both cases. We are translating "fee" as "in" in 911, why not for 912?
                                  So if we use your trans. of "assail" for "taAAanoo", shouldn't it be "assail in your deen", which would directly imply "deen" is a structure.

                                  Well, to me, a deen is a relationship between an abd and rabb (10/104) which MANIFESTS as a behavioural pattern of iqamus-salaat and itaa'u az-zakaat. This is what they're assailing, in my view.

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                                  • WakasW Offline
                                    WakasW Offline
                                    Wakas
                                    wrote on last edited by
                                    #20

                                    peace mq,

                                    Ok, why not the 'taboo' (i.e. 1 as well as 2 &3) bit?

                                    I just felt the 'taboo' was referring to a prior event, thus should be taken out of the equation.

                                    ...they havent done any damage to the conceptual of ad-deen, only the manifestation of ad-deen in the world.

                                    I see your point, and that seems reasonable but I think this is where you perhaps missed my subtle point, it is not 'damage to your deen' it is 'damage in your deen'.

                                    Well, to me, a deen is a relationship between an abd and rabb (10/104) which MANIFESTS as a behavioural pattern of iqamus-salaat and itaa'u az-zakaat. This is what they're assailing, in my view.

                                    Nice reference with 10104, that is pretty much a direct answer to the question "what is 'deen'?".
                                    I'm not questioning your understanding of 'deen', what I'm saying is they are not "assailiing" your deen. They are "assailing" in your deen.

                                    If someone causes trouble/damage in your 'deen', then this clearly shows it is an activity that is being done in your 'deen', i.e. it is not a belief, it is not a set of beliefs, it is something tangible/physical, something present in the real-world. To me, this for example weakens the traditional understanding of 'deen' as 'religion'. For proof of this, it is no coincidence traditional translators omit the "fee/in" in their translations because they are using "deen = religion" and I guess they figured this doesn't sound right.

                                    I think you may be right with "atw zkw" being a good contrast to "t3n dyn".

                                    I had a look at 381. That is interesting, as I never checked the Arabic to see if "al" was there or not. I know from experience al-quran is precise in its word usage thus if its not there, its for a reason.

                                    many thanks for the thought provoking question.

                                    The same to you.

                                    Wakas

                                    All information is correct to the best of my knowledge only and thus should not be taken as a fact. One should always seek knowledge and verify for themselves when possible: 17:36, 20:114, 35:28, 49:6, 58:11.

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                                    • M Offline
                                      M Offline
                                      mquran
                                      wrote on last edited by
                                      #21

                                      WakasI just felt the 'taboo' was referring to a prior event, thus should be taken out of the equation.

                                      I hear you on that but I think we need to find another equational statement just to be sure.

                                      I see your point, and that seems reasonable but I think this is where you perhaps missed my subtle point, it is not 'damage to your deen' it is 'damage in your deen'.

                                      Right, once again I hear you. Ad-deen does manifest in structural form in some way.

                                      Nice reference with 10104, that is pretty much a direct answer to the question "what is 'deen'?".

                                      I owe Izutsu for that one. His 'Semantics of the Koranic Weltanschaung'

                                      I'm not questioning your understanding of 'deen', what I'm saying is they are not "assailiing" your deen. They are "assailing" in your deen.

                                      Perhaps 'committting assailment' , just to make it sound more palatable to the ears?

                                      If someone causes trouble/damage in your 'deen', then this clearly shows it is an activity that is being done in your 'deen', i.e. it is not a belief, it is not a set of beliefs, it is something tangible/physical, something present in the real-world. To me, this for example weakens the traditional understanding of 'deen' as 'religion'. For proof of this, it is no coincidence traditional translators omit the "fee/in" in their translations because they are using "deen = religion" and I guess they figured this doesn't sound right.

                                      Well, if 'aslama' works on a 'wajh' level (3/20) and our deen is al-islaam, then our deen must work on a wajh or expressive level as well. The 'ta3anoo' chaps must be doing something discernible.

                                      I think you may be right with "atw zkw" being a good contrast to "t3n dyn".

                                      So iqamus-salaat must be establishing our aymaan and ahd? We need to find more of these equations in order to be sure.

                                      I had a look at 381. That is interesting, as I never checked the Arabic to see if "al" was there or not. I know from experience al-quran is precise in its word usage thus if its not there, its for a reason.

                                      Gee thanks Wakas but I sort of realised that

                                      Come on, just fire away. Why do you feel there's no 'al' there? Help me out here, man.

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                                      • WakasW Offline
                                        WakasW Offline
                                        Wakas
                                        wrote on last edited by
                                        #22

                                        peace mq,

                                        they were given of book/decree/prescript and wisdom. This makes sense in the context. It seems to indicate they were given a fraction of the pool. You dig?

                                        So iqamus-salaat must be establishing our aymaan and ahd? We need to find more of these equations in order to be sure.

                                        Bro, I just thought, this slw that was being upheld/established was in context, i.e. its specific to the bond/oath that the mushrikeen took. This is an explicit reference to what "iqamus-salaat" is!

                                        Thus, all we need to ask ourselves is what bond/oath is upon us! What is the context for us.

                                        Wakas

                                        All information is correct to the best of my knowledge only and thus should not be taken as a fact. One should always seek knowledge and verify for themselves when possible: 17:36, 20:114, 35:28, 49:6, 58:11.

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                                        • M Offline
                                          M Offline
                                          mquran
                                          wrote on last edited by
                                          #23

                                          Wakasthey were given of book/decree/prescript and wisdom. This makes sense in the context. It seems to indicate they were given a fraction of the pool. You dig?

                                          I dig but the issue's not dug, I'm afraid. A principle I employ for my tafseer is that when al-quraan uses a certain phrase to say a certain thing, it won't use another phrase to mean exactly the same thing. This is why it's 'kitaaban mutashabihan mathany' (39/23). I'm sure you recall phrases like
                                          "naseeban min al-kitaab/portion of the book"

                                          3/81 has no

                                          1. taifan /section (of the book)
                                          2. fariqan / division (of the book)

                                          you get the idea, I'm sure. All it says is, 'kitab wa hikmah'. So its literally a book and wisdom. Could it be because next to Allah, nothing is absolute (thus requiring an 'al') ? I'm still at guesswork for this one.

                                          Bro, I just thought, this slw that was being upheld/established was in context, i.e. its specific to the bond/oath that the mushrikeen took. This is an explicit reference to what "iqamus-salaat" is!

                                          Thus, all we need to ask ourselves is what bond/oath is upon us! What is the context for us.

                                          Right, I see your point. Perhaps 2/83-85 is the covenant? It is described as 'al-kitaab' after all and 29/45 tells us to 'follow whats revealed to us min al-kitaab and aqimu as-salaaat'.

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