Verse 2:228 - can any Arabic speakers translate for me?
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Peace,
I am new to Islam/Quran. Just like several Muslims in this world, I do not speak Arabic and unfortunately this keeps me from finding out the truth. So I am posting one of the verses that I don't understand here hoping that any Arabic-speakers might let me know its true meaning (non-Arabic speakers welcome too).
Verse 2228 according the Quran by Progressive Muslims says
And the divorced women shall hold themselves for three menstruation periods; and it is not lawful for them to conceal what God has created in their wombs, if they believe in God and the last day. And their husbands would still have a right to return them in this situation if they both wish to reconcile. And for what obligations the women are owed, so similarly must they fulfil their obligations. But the men will have a greater responsibility over them in this. And God is Noble, Wise.
However, the similar verse by Submission.org (who say their translation is done by a Messenger of God who spoke Arabic as his native language is quite different). Here it is
The divorced women shall wait three menstruations (before marrying another man). It is not lawful for them to conceal what GOD creates in their wombs, if they believe in GOD and the Last Day. (In case of pregnancy,) the husband's wishes shall supersede the wife's wishes, if he wants to remarry her. The women have rights, as well as obligations, equitably. Thus, the man's wishes prevail (in case of pregnancy). GOD is Almighty, Most Wise.
I've searched all the possible translations on the web and all (Yusuf Ali, Pickthall, Shakir, Sher Ail and Prog. Muslims) say that both a wife and husband would want to reconclie, however, after an email the people at submission said that in Arabic the Quran says "In Arado" which is strictly applied to men in the plural form. If it was meant for the married couple, it would have been " in Arada".
As you can obviously see, this is no simple issue. According to all other translations, both must want to live together, however, according to Khalfia's only the mans wishes count.
I am not sure how true their explaination is, so I ask all those who are Arabic speakers to please transalte me this verse word by word (non-Arabic Speakers most welcome too).
Does the Quran really say force and marry a woman if she is preganat or does it say if both man & women want, they can remarry again?
Thanks much for all your time.