Question: correct translation for Qur'an 2:49
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Salaam
I was looking at Qur'an 249 "And We saved you from the people of Pharaoh; they were punishing you with severe retribution, killing your children, and raping your women. In that was a great trial from your Lord."
Look at the Arabic text and pay attention to the last Arabic word which is Azeem
Wa-ith najjaynakum min alifirAAawna yasoomoonakum soo-a alAAathabi yuthabbihoonaabnaakum wayastahyoona nisaakum wafee thalikumbalaon min rabbikum azeem
The last Arabic word in this verse is Azeem , but I notice that lot of people translate "Azeem" in referrence to "trial" so a lot of people will translate "Great Trial" but my question is this
since its the last Arabic word in that verse and in that verse we see "min Rabbikum Azeem" then shouldn't that word "Azeem " be in referrence to "God" and not "trial"?
Maybe some people here can give some insight to this question?
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It is impossible that "Azeem" could refer to God since "Azeem" is not "moaarraf". To refer to God, it should have been "balaaon min rabbikom ALazeemi" but it is clearly "balaaon min rabbikom azeemon"
My english is very poor, that's why I can not explain the arabic grammatical rules. May be AB can help? yay
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Peace
In reference to 249, yes it has to be describing the trial, the word Azeem used in such context many time in the Quran
regarding the Al "moaarraf", Asmaa Allah can be without the Al as long as the context is clear that it is refering to Him
One who had the knowledge of the Book said I will bring it to you in the twinkling of an eye. Then when he saw it settled beside him, he said This is of the grace of my Lord that He may try me whether I am grateful or ungrateful; and whoever is grateful, he is grateful only for his own soul, and whoever is ungrateful, then surely my Lord is Self-sufficient, Honored.
(40)
Peace to All
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Salam all
The idafa construction (rabbokom) is definite "mo3arraf" and therefore the adjective "3atheem" should have been with "al" if it was related to "rabbokom" because the adjective conforms with the noun it describes in number, gender, grammar and definitness. There is no conformity here with definitness nor with grammar (case ending) as decepticus put it.
The wrong translation is in (rape your women). In fact it is (spare your women's lives) from the root 7 y w life. It wants to show how mothers suffered from the murdering of their children. The example of the suffering of a mother is given to us in the story of (um Musa). She was not raped; and funny enough, his father was not mentioned, not that he did not have a father or his father did not suffer, but the mother's suffering was greater. Maybe if she was to be raped and her child saved would be much easier for her.
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Salaam
Thanks for your response and I agree that "rape women" is a mistranslation. Help me understand what you mean here maybe i over looked something
The idafa construction (rabbokom) is definite "mo3arraf" and therefore the adjective "3atheem" should have been with "al" if it was related to "rabbokom" because the adjective conforms with the noun it describes in number, gender, grammar and definitness. There is no conformity here with definitness nor with grammar (case ending) as decepticus put it.
so is "azeem" in that verse referring to Allah or the trial? I will wait for your answer and thanks.
Salam all
The idafa construction (rabbokom) is definite "mo3arraf" and therefore the adjective "3atheem" should have been with "al" if it was related to "rabbokom" because the adjective conforms with the noun it describes in number, gender, grammar and definitness. There is no conformity here with definitness nor with grammar (case ending) as decepticus put it.
The wrong translation is in (rape your women). In fact it is (spare your women's lives) from the root 7 y w life. It wants to show how mothers suffered from the murdering of their children. The example of the suffering of a mother is given to us in the story of (um Musa). She was not raped; and funny enough, his father was not mentioned, not that he did not have a father or his father did not suffer, but the mother's suffering was greater. Maybe if she was to be raped and her child saved would be much easier for her.
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Salaam
Thanks for your response and I agree that "rape women" is a mistranslation. Help me understand what you mean here maybe i over looked something
The idafa construction (rabbokom) is definite "mo3arraf" and therefore the adjective "3atheem" should have been with "al" if it was related to "rabbokom" because the adjective conforms with the noun it describes in number, gender, grammar and definitness. There is no conformity here with definitness nor with grammar (case ending) as decepticus put it.
so is "azeem" in that verse referring to Allah or the trial? I will wait for your answer and thanks.
It referres to the trial
