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  4. What is the difference between "Nissa, Amraat and Azwaj"

What is the difference between "Nissa, Amraat and Azwaj"

Scheduled Pinned Locked Moved Questions/Comments on the Quran
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    unknownuser
    wrote on last edited by
    #8

    In 4176 "Woman" is used for sister against "Rijjal", clarifying that one is male and other is female; therefore it is not referring to female child. The issue under discussion is also about a childless man. "Rijjal" is not for children.

    If a childless man/human (alkalalati) has siblings, do they not inherit regardless of their age?

    If so then ?rijalan wanisaan? in context of 4176 implies ?males and females? any age.

    Peace

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      siki
      wrote on last edited by
      #9

      Thanks for partcipation. To start with, in 2-282 why is "Amrataan "used in contrast to Rijjal? It should have been Nissa, what could be the wisdom?

      In 3-35, is it wife of Imran, or woman from Imran? if it is women from Imran then in 3-40 why is it been used to convey the meaning of a wife, and if it means wife , why Zoj is not being used.

      siki

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        Samia
        wrote on last edited by
        #10

        Thanks Sister.

        Grand Quran has used the word only from the Root "nuun seen wau"

        Root (&#1569 has been used twice here; and perhaps it has no relation to woman.
        {937}

        {3414}

        What's the pattern for and why would the wau change into hamza? Why wouldn't stay as it does with niswa (e.g nisawin)?

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          Mazhar
          wrote on last edited by
          #11

          If so then ?rijalan wanisaan? in context of 4176 implies ?males and females? any age

          One of the tall claims of Grand Quran is that this is Mubeen. It is written in Arabic which is said to have the distinction of being Mubeen. "rijalan" can't be taken as male of any age. rijalan has been used as 'fully grown up man' not any male of childhood, adolescence etc.

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            siki
            wrote on last edited by
            #12

            In 2-187, why is Nisaa u kum being used, it should have been amraat or azwaj? and also in 2-226,

            and if so , why azwaj is being used in 2-234?

            siki

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              Mazhar
              wrote on last edited by
              #13

              What's the pattern for and why would the wau change into hamza? Why wouldn't stay as it does with niswa (e.g nisawin)?

              Sister, It is complicated grammer issue for me. I remain confined to the words used in the Quran which I find quite evident and self explaining. I found at all 58 places of occurences as denoting women, plural. Please explain it for my knowledge.

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                Mazhar
                wrote on last edited by
                #14

                Thanks for partcipation. To start with, in 2-282 why is "Amrataan "used in contrast to Rijjal? It should have been Nissa, what could be the wisdom?{Siki}

                "Amrataan " dual of two women, Nissa is for more than two women.

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                  Muslimtruthrevealed
                  wrote on last edited by
                  #15

                  Thanks for partcipation. To start with, in 2-282 why is "Amrataan "used in contrast to Rijjal? It should have been Nissa, what could be the wisdom?{Siki}

                  "Amrataan " dual of two women, Nissa is for more than two women.

                  Assalaam Alaikum

                  First point, By you using the Free Minds Arabic 'translation in 'Modern Standard' Arabic, which is lacking the phonetic grammatical symbols (i.e. fatha, kesra, dammah, tarmubutah, tanwiin, etc.) in its 'translation' you dont get the true context and meaning of the words.

                  I dont recall seeing the use of the word 'Amrataan' in reference to 'two women' in Sura Baqarah 2.282.

                  I see the word 'Imraatani' /

                  imraatani man or woman, person, human being, one who thinks or considers; Root word marra means to scan, examine, peruse, pass in review
                  Hans Wehr Arabic English Dictionary 4th Ed. Page 1056 (marra) page 1058 (mara?a)

                  @Mazhar Lastly, your reference '"Amrataan " dual of two women" is incorrect. The arabic transliteration should read 'Amratun' NOT 'Amraatan'.

                  Nor do I see in Sura Baqarah 2282 its in Sura Nisa 4128

                  If either of these forms actually existed 'Amratu' would NOT be 'dual' it would be singular in 3rd person and 'Amraatan' would suggest a 'tanwiin' which would denote plural and indefinite.

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                    Samia
                    wrote on last edited by
                    #16

                    Sister, It is complicated grammer issue for me. I remain confined to the words used in the Quran which I find quite evident and self explaining. I found at all 58 places of occurences as denoting women, plural. Please explain it for my knowledge.

                    This is morphology (sarf) not grammar.
                    Of the 58 places can you explain the following
                    44 Where in the qur'aan do we find the "sadaqa" be given to women? Who is addressed in this verse? Is it for men only?
                    4127 The verse further explains what "nisaa" is composed of.
                    4911 Aren't nisaa' included in "qawm" already?
                    361 "ta3aluu" doesn't this verbal noun include women ? Why are "nisaa'" mentioned again?
                    2431 Who can be "nisaa'uhunna"? Who is "my woman"?
                    434 Is this a command or a statement that "men are qawwamuuna ala women"? Which men?

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                      unknownuser
                      wrote on last edited by
                      #17

                      One of the tall claims of Grand Quran is that this is Mubeen. It is written in Arabic which is said to have the distinction of being Mubeen. "rijalan" can't be taken as male of any age. rijalan has been used as 'fully grown up man' not any male of childhood, adolescence etc.

                      Yes Quran, not Arabic which is a not a perfect language and words are fluid multiple meaning best derived from context; e.g. 434 and beat them (waidriboohunna) issue.

                      Rijalan cannot be a fully grown up man in context below...
                      4176 ...and if they were brothers/brethren ?rijalan wanisaan?, so to the male equal share the two females?

                      Example, a man dies leaving as his only inheritors 2 brothers and 2 sisters
                      Where do we draw the line on the age of participant inheritors ? age 10, 15, 20?

                      Likewise with nisaan in context below means females of any age...
                      411 God directs you in your CHILDREN, to the male equal share the two females,
                      ...so if they are females (nisaan) over two, so for them 2/3 what he left...

                      Whereas, nisaan in many verses using Quran cross-reference can only be women/adults...
                      2231 And if you divorced the women (alnnisaa)
                      654 And those who became infertile from the menstruation from your women (nisa-ikum)

                      Arabic is heavily male centered with terms like ikhwatun (brothers); group can include little girls and boys, same with rijalan wanisaan ? context/cross-reference clarifies best meaning.

                      Peace

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                        siki
                        wrote on last edited by
                        #18

                        3352 It is not lawful for thee (to marry more) women after this, nor to change them for (other) wives, even though their beauty attract thee, except any thy right hand should possess (as handmaidens) and Allah doth watch over all things

                        Mohammad pbuh was prohibited to add on, or change his wives but No such limit was imposed on MMa.

                        siki

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                          Mazhar
                          wrote on last edited by
                          #19

                          Of the 58 places can you explain the following
                          44 Where in the qur'aan do we find the "sadaqa" be given to women? Who is addressed in this verse? Is it for men only?

                          Sister I requested you to explain for my knowledge about hamza issue.

                          43 mentions about engaging women in marriage.
                          And what is Nikah/marriage. Men are told that except for such and such woman, with reference to the sanctity of relationship, and those already bound by the tie of Nikah, other women are made permissible so that men may make a vigorous effort with their money/wealth to seek them for marriage like those who seek woman for making and retaining them as ?pearl? {wife/household} and not like those who seek women with wealth in the manner of a debauch.

                          {424}

                          44 44

                          This is the manner and spirit of what men are under obligation to do;

                          {424}

                          {425}

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                            Mazhar
                            wrote on last edited by
                            #20

                            Yes Quran, not Arabic which is a not a perfect language and words are fluid multiple meaning best derived from context; e.g. 434 and beat them (waidriboohunna) issue.

                            Brother, It amounts to believing in part of Quran and denying/negating some other part. When it is said about Quran that it is Mubeen we say yes it is. But Quran simultaneously says its language Arabic is Mubeen, we say no and add, it is not a perfect language. We contradict even in one small sentence; Quran does not contradict its statements. waidriboohunna issue is made by people. Quran is explicit. Immediately before waidriboohunna is the advice to distance them, wife..inside the bed room. Distancing inside the bed room remains an affair of dispute restricted to husband and wife and none of other members of the family can know about it. The next and final step is to remove wife from the bed room to make the dispute open and evident to other members of the family. waidriboohunna's root infolds in itself the said meaning, make things evident/open/known/understood to people, that is why it is used for giving example since example makes things evident/distinct/understood.

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                              Mazhar
                              wrote on last edited by
                              #21

                              4911 Aren't nisaa' included in "qawm" already?

                              Advice is to the community who identify themselves as believers that a "group/tribe" should not mock other group/tribe and same instruction is being given to women with regard to women. Mockery against a tribe and mockery of women against women are two different and distinct things. Women/men of the same tribe could mock other women of the same "qaum".

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                                unknownuser
                                wrote on last edited by
                                #22

                                Brother, It amounts to believing in part of Quran and denying/negating some other part. When it is said about Quran that it is Mubeen we say yes it is. But Quran simultaneously says its language Arabic is Mubeen, we say no and add, it is not a perfect language. We contradict even in one small sentence; Quran does not contradict its statements.

                                Brother, there is no contradiction; Quran in Arabic is mubeen ? not everything written in Arabic is mubeen/clear.

                                4458 So We made it easy in your tongue/language...

                                26193-196
                                The spirit, the faithful, descended with it
                                On your heart/mind to be from the warners
                                With a clear/evident Arabic language
                                And that it truly is in the first's Books (i.e. Quran in previous languages; Hebrew, Aramaic)

                                4144 And if We made it a non-Arabic Quran, they would have said "If only its verses were detailed/explained. Is (it) a non-Arabic and an Arab (messenger)?"

                                Quran would be descended mubeen/clear in any language of the messengers from Albanian to Zulu.

                                Peace

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                                  Samia
                                  wrote on last edited by
                                  #23

                                  {424}

                                  {425}

                                  wives are given "ujuur payment" not "sadaqa charity".

                                  Search for sadaqa and let's see who is given "sadaqa", and if women re mentioned anywhere else to receive it.

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                                    Samia
                                    wrote on last edited by
                                    #24

                                    Advice is to the community who identify themselves as believers that a "group/tribe" should not mock other group/tribe and same instruction is being given to women with regard to women. Mockery against a tribe and mockery of women against women are two different and distinct things. Women/men of the same tribe could mock other women of the same "qaum".

                                    I understand the meaning of the verse, but my question is why are women mentioned alone after the mention of "qawm"? Why aren't en mentioned alone too?

                                    Cross reference with verse 434 and see the link between (qawm) and (qawwamuun) which share the same root; then (nisaa&#039 in both verses, then you will understand why "rijaal" was not mentioned and what the meaning of (nisaa&#039 is here.
                                    Cross context and referencing, as Hasan mentioned, are the best way to understand the quraan. Linguistics comes later to refute or confirm an understanding.
                                    Or as Dr. Waduud puts it, "read the Book with the eyes of the author".

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                                      Mazhar
                                      wrote on last edited by
                                      #25

                                      Brother, there is no contradiction; Quran in Arabic is mubeen ? not everything written in Arabic is mubeen/clear.

                                      Quran has this claim about the language of Quran

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                                        Muslimtruthrevealed
                                        wrote on last edited by
                                        #26

                                        I?DRIBU-HUNNA (Passive Imperfect, Feminine verb) "TO NEGLECT, IGNORE, AVOID, TURN AWAY FROM STRIFE, DISCORD, ANIMOSITY BETWEEN OR AMONG PEOPLE" ;Lanes Lexicon PAGE 1779 Left Column & 1780 Middle Column Part 5

                                        Does not mean 'hit', cease believing women can be abused.

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                                          Mazhar
                                          wrote on last edited by
                                          #27

                                          wives are given "ujuur payment" not "sadaqa charity".

                                          Translation of ujuur as payment is too crude and is relevant only to a debauch who makes payment to a 'hired worman'. The manner of discharging the agreed liability at the time of Nikkah is to give them in the manner of sadaqotehinna. Word charity does not portray the concept of sadaqa in the true sense.

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