The Wives of the Prophets
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Hi,
This topic is in response to the polygamy/multiple wives thread. However, its slightly off the subjects of those topics so I thought it'd be best to post a new one here.
Polygamy is something I've never quite understood in the faith of Islam and to be honest its a pretty depressing topic for me to think about because based on my understanding, I kind of get a feeling that the Quran allowed polygamy and forbade polyandry (not that I am interesed wink ). I am not sure if God allows polygamy just because a man can or if it is completly not allowed....
Anyway, for now my question is, as far as I know most (if not all) prophets/messengers were married to more than one woman at a time. If polygamy is not allowed, then why were the messenger (who were supposed to be role models for us) granted several wives?
Since we are on the topic, does anyone know how many wives Muhammed had? Based on my research, he was married to his first wife (Kahdijah) for 20 years where he remained monogomous. Then, by the time he passed away, at the age of 60/65, he was married to 12 women. Is this correct?
Thanks!
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'The prophet' does not refer to a single prophet.
Check out 651
O you prophet, if you divorce/talaqtum (this you is plural!) the women, you shall ensure that the divorce interim is fulfilled, and measure the interim. You shall reverence God your Lord. Do not evict the women from their homes, nor shall you make life miserable for them, to force them to leave on their own, unless they commit a proven adultery. These are God's limits. Anyone who transgresses God's limits commits an injustice against himself. You never know; perhaps God will make something good to come out of this.
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'The prophet' does not refer to a single prophet.
Check out 651
O you prophet, if you divorce/talaqtum (this you is plural!) the women, you shall ensure that the divorce interim is fulfilled, and measure the interim. You shall reverence God your Lord. Do not evict the women from their homes, nor shall you make life miserable for them, to force them to leave on their own, unless they commit a proven adultery. These are God's limits. Anyone who transgresses God's limits commits an injustice against himself. You never know; perhaps God will make something good to come out of this.
Then what about the verse that goes something like "Oh, wives of the Prophet..."
I can't remember the chapter/verse number, but the translation I have read have all translated it as in the plural.
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I assume you are referring to 3330 and 32? I read this as, still, not referring to a single prophet i.e. it's referring to multiple (all? 4143) prophets. Hence 'women of the prophet'. Is Muhammad the only prophet? For example, If you check the context for 581 carefully (57, the prophet refers to david/isa.
BTW, 3330/32 doesn't contain the word 'azwaj'/spouse -- the quran doesn't have an exclusive word for a 'wife'-- but nisa/women.
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O prophet, say to your wives, "If you are seeking this life and its vanities, then let me compensate you and allow you to go amicably.
3329
"But if you are seeking GOD and His messenger, and the abode of the Hereafter, then GOD has prepared for the righteous among you a great recompense."3330
O wives of the prophet, if any of you commits a gross sin, the retribution will be doubled for her. This is easy for GOD to do.3331
Any one of you who obeys GOD and His messenger, and leads a righteous life, we will grant her double the recompense, and we have prepared for her a generous provision.3332
O wives of the prophet, you are not the same as any other women, if you observe righteousness. (You have a greater responsibility.) Therefore, you shall not speak too softly, lest those with disease in their hearts may get the wrong ideas; you shall speakIs it prophet or prophets?
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'The prophet' does not refer to a single prophet.
Check out 651
O you prophet, if you divorce/talaqtum (this you is plural!) the women, you shall ensure that the divorce interim is fulfilled, and measure the interim. You shall reverence God your Lord. Do not evict the women from their homes, nor shall you make life miserable for them, to force them to leave on their own, unless they commit a proven adultery. These are God's limits. Anyone who transgresses God's limits commits an injustice against himself. You never know; perhaps God will make something good to come out of this.
651 O prophet! If any of you (men) have divorced the women, then they should be divorced while ensuring that their required interim is fulfilled, and keep count of the interim. You shall reverence God your Lord, and do not evict the women from their homes, nor should they leave, unless they have committed a proven adultery. These are God's limits. Anyone who transgresses God's limits has wronged his own self. You never know; perhaps God will make something come out of this.
Muhammad is the last prophet, and it was only him who was sent with The Quran, so it does not make sense to have it as referring to any other ones. Furthermore, when the prophets are dead, they cease to be authoratative/prophets. Common sense and simple understanding of grammar dictates that the plural "you" cannot refer to the singular "prophet".
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651 O prophet! If any of you (men) have divorced the women, then they should be divorced while ensuring that their required interim is fulfilled, and keep count of the interim. You shall reverence God your Lord, and do not evict the women from their homes, nor should they leave, unless they have committed a proven adultery. These are God's limits. Anyone who transgresses God's limits has wronged his own self. You never know; perhaps God will make something come out of this.
Muhammad is the last prophet, and it was only him who was sent with The Quran, so it does not make sense to have it as referring to any other ones. Furthermore, when the prophets are dead, they cease to be authoratative/prophets. Common sense and simple understanding of grammar dictates that the plural "you" cannot refer to the singular "prophet".
That argument simply does not hold water; if this commandment was for the believers, It would say 'ya ayuhal latheena amanoo...'. There is a reason you had to insert men in parentheses. Context clearly shows the verse is speaking to an-nabi "o prophet when YOU divorce the women...". When a commandment is for the believers, the quran also uses the phrase "tell the believers/wives/other" as in 865, 870, 2430-31, 4714 and 3359...Furthermore, in your rendition 'you men' refers right back to 'o prophet'.
A) Muhammad is certainly not the last prophet, he is the seal of the prophets. The quran has a word for last (akhir), If the God meant last prophet akhir would be used.
C) Quranic evidence for hadha al quran (see 1037 for this phrase) being sent down to Muhammad?It doesn't make much sense that prophet-hood would suddenly halt with some guy named muhammad. A prophet is also a warner ( 2213), and no nation is destroyed before first receiving a warner (2620.
There is only one prophet, their names might change but the message never changes, thus we have the singular prophet as the constituent.
RE Grammar
See this thread.
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Back to 651 the same, singular prophet is being spoken to in the plural. Hence, 'the prophet' = multiple prophets.
So, O Prophet= Hey you Prophets
???
does that imply that all singular appearing references to a Prophet are actually references to multiple Prophets, or is it something else? -
So, O Prophet= Hey you Prophets
???
does that imply that all singular appearing references to a Prophet are actually references to multiple Prophets, or is it something else?The prophet is singular. But since it's talking to them all in 651, women of the prophet = the women of all the prophets. This doesn't mean all references to the prophet = the prophets LITERALLY. The prophet is singular, because they are all one and the same i.e. the same message.
I'm taking the prophet universally/metaphorically, based in part by all messengers being told the same thing (4143). O prophet is o prophet (singular), however contextually (651 once again) and using the quran as the dictionary, we are being told that this is indeed what is revealed to all the prophets.
Let's say, that it is indeed referring to a single prophet, I must ask then which prophet? And based on what evidence?
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Yes islam allowed polygami and it was limited to 4. The purpose of it is too "upgrade" the torah law which is not forbid a man to have wives as many as he wish. After muhammad wives is 4 he is not allowed to have any more wife, even changed it.
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52 It is not allowed to thee to take
wives after this,a nor to change them
for other wives,b though their beauty
be pleasing to thee, except those
whom thy right hand possesses.c And
All?h is ever Watchful over all things.