17:46 - LORD ALONE OR QURAN ALONE?

[Tony]

Peace all

Sunnis ridicule the translation of RK and free-minds of 1746, and they have this explanation. I hope you can shed light on this, especially those who know Arabic.

FM And if you mention your Lord in the Quran alone, they run away turning their backs in aversion.

Traditional and when you mention your Lord alone in the Quran they turn their backs in aversion.

This is their explanation

Since only the Arabic text is Qur'an, we must look at the verse and understand it in Arabic "wa idha dhakarta rabbaka fi al-Qur'ani wahdahu wallaw 'ala adbarihim nufuran". Grammatically speaking, the word "wahdahu" (Him alone) serves as a modifier to the word "rabbaka" (your Lord) and does not modify the word "al-Qur'ani" as Rashad Khalifa wants us to believe. The Arabic rules of grammar can never allow this falsification, as the modifier or the na't (descriptive word) must be in the same grammatical case as the modified noun. In order for the word "wahdahu" to modify "al-Qur'ani," it must agree with it in the grammatical case. However, they do not agree, as "wahdahu" is in the accusative case while "al-Qur'ani" is in the genitive case and is governed by the preposition "fi". The word "whadahu" must modify the word "rabbaka", which are both in the accusative case, as indicated by the fathah (represented by the letter a in English) on the second syllable.

Could the Arabic speakers here shed light on this?

Thanks and Peace!

Tony