Surah 75:27
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If you translated this verse as
"who physically follow that Messenger who is the Chosen and Elevated from amongst those who were not given the Book earlier. That Chosen and Elevated about whom they find mentioned in writing with them in the Tor'aat and the In'jeel"then yes that IS what that is saying to me. It is saying THAT messenger is chosen and elevated and the other books mentioned him, it is elevating Muhammed to be higher than the previous prophets that 'those who were not given the book earlier' already knew about. I am not saying you have done this on purpose, but if that is the English translation then it IS distorting the verse, in English, IMO
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sorry my reply box is jumping all over the place!
Your quotes here say the plural, and I agree they were ALL chosen and 'elevated' for that, just that verse implies something else in how it is translated.Perhaps this is not being understood as I wished to convey, "that Messenger who is the Chosen and Elevated from amongst those who were not given the Book earlier."
A Messenger is chosen from amongst the people. He belonged to a people who were not given the Book earlier as is stated more than once in the Qur'aan.
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Perhaps this is not being understood as I wished to convey, "that Messenger who is the Chosen and Elevated from amongst those who were not given the Book earlier."
A Messenger is chosen from amongst the people. He belonged to a people who were not given the Book earlier as is stated more than once in the Qur'aan.003.023
YUSUFALI Hast thou not turned Thy vision to those who have been given a portion of the Book? They are invited to the Book of Allah, to settle their dispute, but a party of them Turn back and decline (The arbitration).
004.044
YUSUFALI Hast thou not turned Thy vision to those who were given a portion of the Book? they traffic in error, and wish that ye should lose the right path.
004.051
YUSUFALI Hast thou not turned Thy vision to those who were given a portion of the Book? they believe in sorcery and Evil, and say to the Unbelievers that they are better guided in the (right) way Than the believers!
The verse doesnt say those that were not given the book earlier and these verses show they WERE given a PORTION of the Book. The verse even says he is mentioned in THEIR books. Your translation looks like 'this is the better prophet, better than yours because ours got THE BOOK and yours didnt' to be honest.Your translation also makes no mention of him being unable to read and write, as in 'unlettered' which is in the Arabic although I am aware the entire verse probably wasnt posted, didnt check that sorry. peace
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Ayesha you are mixing up "People of Book" with those who were not given the Book before Qur'aan and they are "A Messenger is chosen from amongst the people. He belonged to a people who were not given the Book earlier as is stated more than once in the Qur'aan".
Both are different and distinct entities
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Therefore if they argue/dispute with you, the Messenger then merely tell them, "I and those who physically follow me have made ourselves exclusively subservient for the Code of Conduct prescribed by Allah".
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And pronounce for those people whom Book was given earlier and for those whom Book was not given earlier "Do you submit to the Prescribed Code of Conduct?".For complete verse with context
Chapter3No nation as a whole is termed or called as "unlettered", it will be considered as contrary to fact statement, while Qur'aan is Al Haqqo. Comparison is between two nations/peoples; those who were given the Book and those who were not given the Book.
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Yes, I am translating it exactly as it has been defined and described quite descriptively in the Grand Qur'aan.
Oh My God!! are you kidding ? the word "" is referring to the infidels of Arabs who they didn't have a book before.
ah by the way where did you find this " " it is not in Quran ? hmm
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Ayesha you are mixing up "People of Book" with those who were not given the Book before Qur'aan and they are "A Messenger is chosen from amongst the people. He belonged to a people who were not given the Book earlier as is stated more than once in the Qur'aan".
there is a difference between this verse that you stated there in your post and the other one .
God said " "( )" " Those who follow the Messenger, the Prophet who can neither read nor write (i.e. Muhammad م whom they find written with them in the Taur?t (Torah) and the Injeel (Gospel) "
God said " " "those people whom Book was given earlier and for those whom Book was not given earlier =The Arabs (the infidels of them).
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there is a difference between this verse that you stated there in your post and the other one .
God said " "( )" " Those who follow the Messenger, the Prophet who can neither read nor write (i.e. Muhammad م whom they find written with them in the Taur?t (Torah) and the Injeel (Gospel) "
God said " " "those people whom Book was given earlier and for those whom Book was not given earlier =The Arabs (the infidels of them).
So you think that means "one man who can neither read nor write" and its plural version means "people/many men whom Book was not given earlier".
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So you think that means "one man who can neither read nor write" and its plural version means "people/many men whom Book was not given earlier".
Yes. because here we're talking about the meaning not the word in the verse, what God wanted to say . the word takes different meaning according to the sentence where we use it.
You didn't answer my question " where did you find this "" " it is not in Quran ? " peace
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Yes. because here we're talking about the meaning not the word in the verse, what God wanted to say . the word takes different meaning according to the sentence where we use it.
You didn't answer my question " where did you find this "" " it is not in Quran ? " peace
Step by step....How do you know that Allah wanted you to understand by singular a person who can neither read nor write and when He uses plural of the same word you should understand that He wants you to take it as people whom book was not given earlier.
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Step by step....How do you know that Allah wanted you to understand by singular a person who can neither read nor write and when He uses plural of the same word you should understand that He wants you to take it as people whom book was not given earlier.
No, you have a wrong Idea about the verse, if the word came in a masculin singular in the verse, it'll take the same meaning because of its meaning changed according to the senetence where God used it.
for the thousands of times , I said I'm Arab, so It'll be easily to know the difference between this word in this sentence and itself in another sentence. we're talking about the meaning not the word. You alwats talk about the word. They can be the same words but they take different meanings like before where did you did a mistake in "" and "" look at the two words , they are the same, isn't ? but they are totally different / the first means the one who ascends and the second means the one who performs last moment rituals-say prayers. For you it'll be difficult to know who is the one that God wanted to say but for me or for any Arab, it'll be easy to know according to the meaning in the verse.
Edit to Add Answer my question.
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Yes, I am translating it exactly as it has been defined and described quite descriptively in the Grand Qur'aan.
the same word is used to mean 'unlettered', 'unlearned', 'illiterate', 'ignorant' its the same word in those verses and yes a nation or group of people can be illiterate, unlearned, unlettered, ignorant. The word is used in the same way in 278, 320, 375, 7157, 7158, 622 where every single other translator has used 'unlettered, unlearned, illiterate, or ignorant' which all mean pretty much the same thing, you have replaced with 'those who were not given the book earlier'. Why did you choose that and not 'belonging to mother'?
It just seems you have chosen another meaning of that word and used it because no one else has yet and it changes the meaning.
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the same word is used to mean 'unlettered', 'unlearned', 'illiterate', 'ignorant' its the same word in those verses and yes a nation or group of people can be illiterate, unlearned, unlettered, ignorant. The word is used in the same way in 278, 320, 375, 7157, 7158, 622 where every single other translator has used 'unlettered, unlearned, illiterate, or ignorant' which all mean pretty much the same thing, you have replaced with 'those who were not given the book earlier'. Why did you choose that and not 'belonging to mother'?
It just seems you have chosen another meaning of that word and used it because no one else has yet and it changes the meaning.I want just to make a difference between those verses that you have stated that means the "unlearned" and that one stated by Mazhar, the translation typically is right "those who were not given the book earlier but he should add the meaning of it which means the Arabs (the strain of Ismae'el), the infidels of them.
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I want just to make a difference between those verses that you have stated that means the "unlearned" and that one stated by Mazhar, the translation typically is right "those who were not given the book earlier but he should add the meaning of it which means the Arabs (the strain of Ismae'el), the infidels of them.
So what makes it different? What makes that same word mean unlettered, unlearned, ignorant in some verses and 'those who were not given the book earlier' in another verse and where does bani Ismael come into any of it? ???
I am not asking to argue, I am sincerely asking to KNOW and to understand, because that same word is used in those verses.
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I want just to make a difference between those verses that you have stated that means the "unlearned" and that one stated by Mazhar, the translation typically is right "those who were not given the book earlier but he should add the meaning of it which means the Arabs (the strain of Ismae'el), the infidels of them.
are we looking at the same verse because you just asked HIM where he got that from and now you're saying he should put what he HAS put?
Now I am confused ???
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So what makes it different? What makes that same word mean unlettered, unlearned, ignorant in some verses and 'those who were not given the book earlier' in another verse and where does bani Ismael come into any of it? ???
He used Bani Ismael because Typically they are The Arabs, the strain that never receive a book until the coming of the prophet peace be upon him Muhammed. you know that Ibrahim has two sons Is'hak the father of Jacob which is the father of the strain of Isreal who they receive a lot of prophets and books and the second one is Ismeal who is Typically the father of Arabs but his strain didn't receive any books and no prophets until the coming of the prophet .that's why the word here means "Those who were not given the book earlier adding The Arabs (the infidels of them)
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are we looking at the same verse because you just asked HIM where he got that from and now you're saying he should put what he HAS put?
Yes, we're looking at the same verse, I asked him how he knows that from the verse and where he found it in the verse? no indication of it in the verse. typically the translation is right but adding that they are the Arabs(the infidels of them).
we know that because Arabs lived with the mother of Ismael and he grew up and married from Arabs, that's why we said Ismael peace be upon him were from Arabs. but the question is how he knows that from the verse ?
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the same word is used to mean 'unlettered', 'unlearned', 'illiterate', 'ignorant' its the same word in those verses and yes a nation or group of people can be illiterate, unlearned, unlettered, ignorant. The word is used in the same way in 278, 320, 375, 7157, 7158, 622 where every single other translator has used 'unlettered, unlearned, illiterate, or ignorant' which all mean pretty much the same thing, you have replaced with 'those who were not given the book earlier'. Why did you choose that and not 'belonging to mother'?
It just seems you have chosen another meaning of that word and used it because no one else has yet and it changes the meaning.
Let us move slowly and step by step with the verses quoted by you, good effort. One admitted thing about Arabic by every rational and reasonable person on earth has been the fact that its words take birth from a Root and whatever be the manner and in whatever context they may be used, the basic perception infolded in the Root shall always remain there in dominant position. We will never find inconsistency and mutually contradictory statement in Grand Qur'aan. Let us first take 278
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And among Bani Iesraa'eel are such commoners who do not know the Book, except wishful/hopeful hearsay/conjectural myths made known and popular in societyI can weep only on the intellect of those people who translate the word here as "unlettered, illiterate" despite the fact that the word itself has been defined and qualified by the next words by referring to "Al Kitab". The same is the case with us that our lot majority falls in the definition of the same word since they do not their "Alkitab-Qur'aan" except that which our clergy and bukharis and company threw before them.
And amongst them-the people referred hereinbefore are it is plural noun, in nominative case-subject--Who they are/what is their definition/what is their peculair trait--the information/Khabr given is the do not know-they do not have the knowledge of the Book---exception is that they have the knowledge-know how of , and what is other thing about them---it is stated that they resultantly are indulge in nothing except conjecturing, guessing, wishful thinking.
How could some one translate the word as illiterate, unlettered in the presence of complete explanatory note about them by Allah. Your opinion pl.
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Let us move slowly and step by step with the verses quoted by you, good effort. One admitted thing about Arabic by every rational and reasonable person on earth has been the fact that its words take birth from a Root and whatever be the manner and in whatever context they may be used, the basic perception infolded in the Root shall always remain there in dominant position. We will never find inconsistency and mutually contradictory statement in Grand Qur'aan. Let us first take 278
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And among Bani Iesraa'eel are such commoners who do not know the Book, except wishful/hopeful hearsay/conjectural myths made known and popular in society
I can weep only on the intellect of those people who translate the word here as "unlettered, illiterate" despite the fact that the word itself has been defined and qualified by the next words by referring to "Al Kitab". The same is the case with us that our lot majority falls in the definition of the same word since they do not their "Alkitab-Qur'aan" except that which our clergy and bukharis and company threw before them.
And amongst them-the people referred hereinbefore are it is plural noun, in nominative case-subject--Who they are/what is their definition/what is their peculair trait--the information/Khabr given is the do not know-they do not have the knowledge of the Book---exception is that they have the knowledge-know how of , and what is other thing about them---it is stated that they resultantly are indulge in nothing except conjecturing, guessing, wishful thinking.
How could some one translate the word as illiterate, unlettered in the presence of complete explanatory note about them by Allah. Your opinion pl.No, You're wrong the word here means unlettered, so stop confusing people
- And there are among them (Jews) unlettered people , who know not the Book, but they trust upon false desires and they but guess.
Among the Jews, there are unlettered people, who they don't know anything about the book because of their ignorance and because they are unlearned, they just took what they have been told from a false fallacies(according to some people of them who they gave them things from their desires) so these unlettered ones just guessing that this is right.
stop confusing people .