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  4. 9:24 anyone else ever hear of this claim

9:24 anyone else ever hear of this claim

Scheduled Pinned Locked Moved Questions/Comments on the Quran
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  • M Offline
    M Offline
    mirjamnur
    wrote on last edited by
    #21

    Salam Mazhar
    thank you. i will read the link today in quite and clear mood D isa!

    Writing Arabic in English which does not pronounce the sounds of Arabic is something I consider ridiculous.

    Write the Words in Arabic, and it will help avoid all stupid and unsubstantiated generalised assertions. Diacritic marks representing vowels are the built in aspect of Arabic language. It would be stupid of a so called scholar if he thinks that the vowels were added into the language after three hundred years of their pronouncement.

    i'm totally agree with you, just there are many people who say, that the Quran should be studied without vowels, because Allah sent the quran without vowels- and in the different versions (hafs warsh etc) we can see, that one time ql means qul and other time qala- so Now if we be aware of these facts, then the assertion of Edip still beyond logic? what is your advice ?
    thank you for you help
    Salam )

    Salam

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      Ayisha
      wrote on last edited by
      #22

      Descent from and Ascent to Praised Abode]http//haqeeqat.org.pk/English%20Tafsir%20e%20Haqeeqat/00.%20Individual%20Ayaat/017/079.htm] Descent from and Ascent to Praised Abode

      why is this in Scottish? ???

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        Mazhar
        wrote on last edited by
        #23

        why is this in Scottish? ???

        Yes the middle class have yet a shaky compromise with English of England, despite the 1707 Act of Union.

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          Mazhar
          wrote on last edited by
          #24

          Salam Mazhar
          thank you. i will read the link today in quite and clear mood D isa!

          i'm totally agree with you, just there are many people who say, that the Quran should be studied without vowels, because Allah sent the quran without vowels- and in the different versions (hafs warsh etc) we can see, that one time ql means qul and other time qala- so Now if we be aware of these facts, then the assertion of Edip still beyond logic? what is your advice ?
          thank you for you help
          Salam )

          Salam

          Edip does not, and his godfather RK too did not, know the basic fact about Arabic that it is a language of syllables. The shortest syllable that conveys meanings comprises of at least one sonsonant and a vowel. This renders it a unique language; and each and all its words are therefore unique. A change in vowel on a consonant of a word otherwise looking similar to another will make the difference in meanings that might be poles apart.

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            huruf
            wrote on last edited by
            #25

            It is preposterous to say that beause only consonants are represented graphically that the voewels do not matter. The vowels are there even if you do not see them. People cannot speak without vowels and people have pronounced the Qur'an and heard the Qur'an with vowels, and may be far more than read. People have many times been illiterate and not because of that the didn't know what they said or know nothing nor poetry nor narrations. Quite the opposite, the memorizing capacity was greater.

            On the other hand, by that ruly, then chinese doesn't have neither consonants nor vowels, so just simply we know absolutely nothing in chinese, everything is unknown. Arabic writing is not more misterious than chinese, nor even than the so called hebrew, and the latter seems not to be a matter of contention for anybody, in spite of it.

            Salaam

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