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  4. New article: What is the meaning of "al masjid al haram"?

New article: What is the meaning of "al masjid al haram"?

Scheduled Pinned Locked Moved Questions/Comments on the Quran
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  • R Offline
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    runninglikezebras
    wrote on last edited by
    #159

    2140 does not make any sense unless you accept this refers to the denied access to the jews by christians to temple mount/jerusalem.

    I agree there is no mentioning of a new qiblah, only if your mind was brainwashed with sunna you will interprete it like a change. But I don't understand your position noshirk. You admit it refers to an existing qiblah, but you seem to deny it involves the qiblah that was already known to the jews.)

    "The qiblah they were on" ... it's incredible how people are capable of misunderstanding that this is the Qiblah known to the jews. How can it possibly refer to something else? Who was on the qiblah for centuries if not the jews? Can someone who rejects the qiblah/temple mount explain to me who was on the qiblah if not the jews?

    Who turned away from the qiblah? Please tell me who was expelled from temple mount if not the jews by christians/byzantines/romans?

    How one can be blind to the fact that this is referring to jews and christians (see 2140) is completely beyond my understanding...

    In jewish faith the mizrah is as old as Solomon. Their direction of prayer is based on the prayer of Solomon and repeated in the story of David. If these are corruptions why does Quran not tell us explicitly the jews are praying in the wrong direction? Moreover, how would you explain Jerusalem was so important even in Muhammads life (attested by the battle with the byzantines). Why on earth would early muslims build a sacred place next to the jewish ones on top of a qiblah that is false? Why on earth would muslim conquerors of jerusalem grant access to temple mount to the jews for a worship that is false? This my friends, makes no sense at all.

    Reject the qiblah and you will get smacked in the face by the historical record of jerusalem. This historical record only allows the interpretation of masjid al haram being temple mount. Some of you would turn temple mount into a garbage dump it looks like, robbed of all its meaning.

    Check the inscriptions on the dome of the rock. Do they state the jews are having a wrong qiblah like it states the christians are wrong to think jesus is a god? It doesn't. Don't you think if that qiblah would be wrong, it would have been there? Wouldnt Quran explicitly state that the jewish qiblah is wrong? It does not say this, in contrary it reaffirms the existing qiblah.

    I wonder how those who reject temple mount being the qiblah interprete 2140

    Also consider the consequence of denying this qiblah. It means you are throwing out all the history and common grounds with the jewish faith you will have to rewrite the history of Ibrahim, the people of Israel and so much more. In fact, I would even dare to say, if you reject temple mount as the qiblah you are no longer having an Islamic perspective, because you just threw out all the abrahamic history. Islam is an abrahamic faith. The history of messengers and prophets is shared with judaism. Where it differs, Quran tells us about their corruptions. If you interprete Quran and deny it reaffirms the existing Qiblah God appointed to the jews and to the muslims, then you are adhering to a version of Islam that is no longer abrahamic. You are no longer part of the 'balanced community' that is referred to in those verses. Indeed, by rejecting the qiblah you are unlike Ibrahim, Ishmael etc more like a christian than muslim (see 2140).

    To me Islam is not a new faith. There is only one God and only one system. There is only one Qiblah. There is only one Ibrahim. One Adam. One Musa. God does not abrogate. The corruption in Jewish and Christian faith, is just like the corruption in Islamic sectarianism a result of human corruption of the one message. This rejection of abrahamic roots to me is the downfall of quranism. There is a tendency on this forum to create a schism with the abrahamic common past among quranists here that in the end will prove the sectarians right when they accuse quranists of being a sect.

    "We made the direction of prayer you were used to except that We make evident (he) who follows the Messenger from (he) who turns back on his heels."

    Sunni's turned back on their heels, shiites turned back on their heels and apparently even among quranists we find many turning back on their heels. It's equal to me. But this reminds me, how do those rejecting Temple Mount or the qiblah being a geographical place explain this wording of 'turning back on their heels'? You can only turn back on your heels from a geographical place/direction. This wording is so self-evident that the misunderstanding is flabbergasting to me.

    It's funny, even before I ever read Quran, jerusalem was always a focal point to me. Not in a religious sense as it is for me today but more in a political, human rights way. For some reason the Israeli Palestine conflict has always been one of my major concerns. It still is today but since reading Quran I understand what this place means spiritually. I never could understand how it was possible that, in a region so heavily burdened by oppression, human rights violation, war and conflict - jerusalem was still a safe place for both muslims, jews and christians. Even to someone secular this is highly extraordinary. God willing I will one day visit Temple Mount.

    I will refrain from further debating this topic as I find the rejection in this thread quite depressing, preventing me from contributing much more rational arguments.

    Peace

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    • R Offline
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      runninglikezebras
      wrote on last edited by
      #160

      Etymologically not understanding qiblah as a direction has many issues. Qibla is borrowed from aramaic.

      Every language that has borrowed the word from aramaic has a definition of direction

      Fula alkibila - direction
      Hindi kibla - direction
      Indonesian kiblat - direction

      All borrowed from the aramaic qeble.

      Peace

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        noshirk
        wrote on last edited by
        #161

        dear runninglikezebras

        there was old qibla as there was wrong path to Allah. All is spiritual directions. tariq mustaqim and all other directions.
        Nothing to do with anything you can draw on a map.

        i will not discuss 2-140 since i see no way to make appear temple mount of Jerusalem there.

        my rejection is however so big that i can't even understand what Salomon has to do jerusalem.

        3835 He (Salomon) said ?My Lord, forgive me, and grant me a kingship that will never be attained by anyone after me. You are the Grantor.?

        3412 And for Solomon the wind was given, traveling one month coming and one month going, and We caused a spring of tar to flow for him. And from among the Jinn are those that worked for him with the permission of his Lord; and any one of them who turns from Our commands, We shall cause him to taste the retribution of the Fire.
        3413 They made for him what he desired of enclosures, and images and pools of deep reservoirs, and heavy pots. ?O family of David, work to give thanks.? Only a few of My servants are thankful.

        As you see, Salomon was at the head of very big empire with many architectural building
        there is no archeological traces of such things in jeruslam
        it is not only the religious temple of salomon that was lost in Jeruslem. They lost also "kingship that will never be attained by anyone after me (Salomon)". pools, senclosure and so on. It is the greatest archeological dispartion in human kind.

        Peace

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        • M Offline
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          Man_of_Faith
          wrote on last edited by
          #162

          You should study several lexicons and not just one. And you should focus on what the root means and not stare yourself blind on forms derived from it.

          The root means what you have in your vicinity and have admitted with the Qiblateh the object form of it, whether it is a physical object or not.

          Be well

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          • R Offline
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            runninglikezebras
            wrote on last edited by
            #163

            @noshirk There has never been done any proper archaeological study on temple mount so there is little to conclude about the archaealogical evidence of Solomons temple. Also bear in mind the temple has been destroyed and rebuilt many times over the centuries. Finding evidence of it will be hard. I don't think you can conclude from it it didn't exist.

            @MOF the etymology I quoted is not from lexicons but are etymological facts. The aramaic source means no such thing as "what you have in your vicinity". The qeble of the wind. How would you translate that using your definition? It fails. Quran even makes the interpretation easy by referring to east and west - literally directions.

            Peace

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              Man_of_Faith
              wrote on last edited by
              #164

              Etymology is usually recorded in lexicons and in how languages are used needs to be preserved to know how a word is to be used. Where do you think the researchers who studied the etymology got their definitions? They studied lexicons, samples of text and compare it to how the word is used today, but it does often not take bias into consideration as much as it should.

              The definitions I mentioned are not within the lexicons for fun but because that is what the word has in terms of connotations. Before, in front of, within reach, accepted, admitted are all definitions to define one and the same word because it is a conscious choice of adherence to. That is the morphological meaning of the word "Conscious about such ". It speaks of the mental process of admitting anything to influence a person, therefore the usage as "reception" in a lexicon that Hicham9 mentioned as it has to do with acceptance. This way you let something be "before you" as that is what you accepted/received. When forming Qiblateh (the original Classical Arabic pronunciation of it as the actual letter is called "teh" which you should know who speak of Aramaic) you render what you accepted into a singular object reference.

              If you involve what Hicham9 said about reception then the homes of the "Bani Israel" were turned into acceptors of the guidance, i.e. put it in practical use, that Moses came with as the prophet (enlightened one) he was. It is to speak of approval of something. The Qiblateh is what was approved of (the object).

              It does not say directions physically east or west but it says metaphorically as to being in confusion without knowing what to ACCEPT. The word used for face is seldom used to mark such but it refers to mental perception. It would mean GOD also has a face. No it is not a physical face, but purely mental. It sounds lame if your mind to east or west.

              Be well

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              • R Offline
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                runninglikezebras
                wrote on last edited by
                #165

                So in your opinion interpreting east and west literally as directions is far-fetched but a complex definition is not?

                The simple truth is qeble is often used in aramaic among others to express wind directions. As such it is used in 2142. Your definition simply is incompatible with expressing any such direction, as directions are neither near nor far but always out of reach since they are relative orientations. A direction is rendered meaningless when you are on it. Eg if you take a compass to the north pole, north becomes meaningless. God does not need to have a face to be able to express relative directions like east and west. If you are aware of everything, even what people hide, then one can always express x has this direction compared to a remote y. Does God need to have a face to tell us in Quran where the sun rises?

                As such qibla is used in Quran. It's function is to point to a remote point.

                "Facing" is the original meaning of the root word qbl, qibbel in hebrew meaning "receive" is a derivative! There is no reason to suggest the meaning in Quran of qbl is a derivative especially when used in a phrase citing east and west.

                "Now when Daniel knew that the writing was signed, he went into his
                house; and, his windows being open in his chamber toward Jerusalem, he
                kneeled upon his knees three times a day, and prayed, and gave thanks
                before his God, as he did aforetime. (Daniel 6 11)"

                Peace

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                  hicham9
                  wrote on last edited by
                  #166

                  I understand qblh as a place of acceptance/welcome/hospitality/cordial reception

                  Thus, to my knowledge

                  1. In 2142/5 qblh denotes a destination = a site appointed to receive/host/accommodate the Messenger of G-D.

                  2. In 1087

                  G-D instructs Ms? and his brother to settle their community in mr (Mesopotamia),
                  make their homes hospitable , and establish/maintain the lh , ...

                  Nb. upholding a so-called "prayer direction" is clearly a denial of G-D's Omnipresence !
                  I classify this preposterous, non-Qurnic, Sunni doctrine as a form of personification.

                  ? qblh () qbylh ()] is derived from the Arabian, ?emitic root qbl () ~ to oppose, receive, or appeal to

                  SLM

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                    runninglikezebras
                    wrote on last edited by
                    #167

                    Edit Misread your post Hicham9

                    This illustrates the use of the derivative and original meaning. But I don't see how anyone can consider the derivative meaning (place of reception) - when this word is being used in context of east and west - as still plausible.

                    Peace

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                      hicham9
                      wrote on last edited by
                      #168

                      ... I don't see how anyone can consider the derivative meaning (place of reception) - when this word is being used in context of east and west - as still plausible.

                      Plz, reread what I said

                      In 2142/5 qblh denotes a destination

                      = a site appointed to receive/host/accommodate the Messenger of G-D.

                      SLM

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                      • R Offline
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                        runninglikezebras
                        wrote on last edited by
                        #169

                        I wasn't addressing you with that @hicham9

                        Although in my opinion destination is a poor translation. Direction/orientation is way more precise. qbl does not necessarily involve travelling. Eg a wall or any static object can have a qibla.

                        The front of my house has a qeble that is north. My garage has a qeble that is south etc. All these are valid in aramaic and in arab. None of those things, neither my house nor garage is travelling or going anywhere.

                        Neither is Daniel crawling on his knees towards Jerusalem three times a day when the aramaic qbl is used in Daniel 6 11

                        Here's a transliteration

                        611 vdnyl kdy ydj dy-rsym ktb jl lbyth vkvyn ptyxn lh bjlyth ngd yrvslm vzmnyn tlth byvm hv brk jl-brkvhy vm&l vmvd qdm lhh kl-qbl dy-hv jbd mn-qdmt dnh.

                        Note the occurence of the aramaic qbl even in the hebrew version. Interestingly enough this verse is explicitly used for a prayer direction, namely Jerusalem. Daniel is nowhere near the vicinity of Jerusalem as he lived his entire lifetime in Babylonian captivity. Need to say more?

                        Good thing traffic signs aren't in quranic arabic or you'd all be driving in the wrong direction )

                        I guess many of you have a problem with getting on their knees for God, regardless of the direction that is appointed by God. So be it. I think I provided conclusive evidence.

                        Peace

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                          hicham9
                          wrote on last edited by
                          #170

                          Pardon my ignorance rlz but,
                          how is biblical the same as n.f. qblh () again!?

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                            runninglikezebras
                            wrote on last edited by
                            #171

                            Both (hebrew and arab) have borrowed qbl from aramaic. They are linguistically called borrowed words/loanwords. The original meaning though is 'facing/orientation/direction'. You are quoting derivatives not the original aramaic meaning. Daniel is well-known by experts for it's heavy use of aramaic borrowed words and so is Quran.

                            This is exactly where Wakas article is failing. It fails to recognize this is a borrowed aramaic word and tries to find meaning using Quran only. He's overlooking this word is older than Quran and the arab language. It is not an arab word originally. It has plenty of occurrences outside Quran like in Daniel, you have to test any thesis using those external sources as well. You can't just alter the meaning of a word like you wish. Linguistics are not a puzzle game.

                            Wakas article uses a methodology that tries to fit pieces (meaning) inside Quranic verses only, like a puzzle game. He should do a better job at crosschecking the etymology of words first. Not only is this overlooked in the article what concerns qibla but also concerning masjid which is a borrowed word as well.

                            @Wakas I hope you can appreciate this as a constructive criticism, crosscheck the etymology of these words yourself. Don't take my word for it. Once you take etymology into consideration as well, I'm sure the quality of your article will surpass the amateuristic level it is at now. Imagine if all linguists would use this methodology, using one book only to discover the meaning of a word that is untranslated and borrowed from a donor other language. It would be a total mess. No one would agree with the meaning of anything. It's not an objective methodology, it's entirely subjective which undermines all the effort that was put into the work.

                            Any linguist will tell you when studying the meaning of a loanword you are making a huge mistake by ignoring the donor language. These words are borrowed untranslated. You have to look at the donor language.

                            Other examples of loanwords are eg kindergarten in English, the donor language is german. If you want to know what kindergarten means, you have to study the donor language. There is just no other way. What Wakas is doing, and others in this thread, is trying to understand the meaning of kindergarten using the English language only, ignoring the donor language, german, entirely. One can see how that is a lost case to being with. In case of qibla, the donor language is aramaic. Wakas and others in this thread refuse to even look at the donor language and its use in known sources using the root word or having loaned the word as well.

                            Anyone that doesn't understand the importance of the above, is in my opinion incapable of shedding any light on the matter, but will rather cause more confusion.

                            If anyone is interested in online tools to check the etymology of quranic and arab words just private message me, I will hook a brother/sister up. jedi

                            Peace

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                            • H Offline
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                              hicham9
                              wrote on last edited by
                              #172

                              How absurd!

                              G-D's messenger didn't "borrow" any "foreign" words!

                              That's a misconception on your part.

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                                runninglikezebras
                                wrote on last edited by
                                #173

                                Gods messenger didn't borrow any words. The arab language borrowed words from aramaic. Plenty. Languages are the product of human culture. God nor his messenger have anything to do with how a language evolves. Clearly linguistics aren't your forte, hicham9. I can't imagine you are claiming Gods messenger invented the arab language... rotfl

                                Check any etymological reference on arab foreign words/loanwords. This is not my opinion this is an established linguistic fact.

                                http//upload.wikimedia.org/wikipedia/commons/a/ae/Loanword_classification_tree_3.gif

                                It's funny how Wakas realized in his article the grammar of masjid in Quran does not obey the proper arabic rules, of course it doesn't it's an imported word. Just like qbl. Instead of acknowledging it's importation he ties conclusions to flawed grammatical rules for places. I'm truly amazed few on this forum are even aware of the aramaic foreign words and loanwords inside Quran. This should be basic knowledge. The hebrew scriptures are filled with a similar phenomenon. Which should be no surprise to those who are familiar with it.

                                I'm really sorry to be the big bad wolf that is breaking this news to you guys. I know it will make things harder filling in your own desires into quranic meaning.

                                Peace

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                                  hicham9
                                  wrote on last edited by
                                  #174

                                  Clearly linguistics aren't your forte, hicham9.

                                  You think you can "teach" me about linguistics when you can't even distinguish between (emitic) prep. qbl and n.f. qblh!!?

                                  You sure got some nerve, ninny!

                                  I can't imagine you are claiming Gods messenger invented the arab language... rotfl

                                  I never made such a claim!

                                  That's what you wish I had said!

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                                    runninglikezebras
                                    wrote on last edited by
                                    #175

                                    You think you can "teach" me about linguistics when you can't even distinguish between (?emitic) qbl and qblh!!?

                                    You sure got some nerve, ninny!

                                    I never made such a claim!

                                    Edit The first is clearly the root word as I stated the originally imported aramaic word, qblh is its derivative. Are you refuting this?

                                    In English equivalents this is facing and in front of. I pointed this out to you many times before you are only referring to the derivative. Apparently you fail to understand what that means.

                                    Both (hebrew and arab) have borrowed qbl from aramaic. They are linguistically called borrowed words/loanwords. The original meaning though is 'facing/orientation/direction'. You are quoting derivatives not the original aramaic meaning. Daniel is well-known by experts for it's heavy use of aramaic borrowed words and so is Quran.

                                    You insinuated Gods messenger invented the arab language here

                                    G-D's messenger didn't "borrow" any "foreign" words!

                                    It insinuates those words didn't exist before the messenger. I nowhere referred/involved Gods messenger in linguistic understanding of qbl. That was your work.

                                    But it might as well be total ignorance. If you fail to address the root word and exclusively want to stick to the derivative form it seems to me you are trying to exclude and obscure the most original meaning of the word. Not sure if you will understand it this time though. qbl was the original import into hebrew and arab. qblh is a derivative of qbl.

                                    Peace

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                                      hicham9
                                      wrote on last edited by
                                      #176

                                      The front of my house has a qeble that is north. My garage has a qeble that is south etc. All these are valid in aramaic and in arab. None of those things, neither my house nor garage is travelling or going anywhere. Neither is Daniel crawling on his knees towards Jerusalem three times a day when the aramaic qbl is used in Daniel 611. Here's a transliteration

                                      611 vdnyl kdy ydj dy-rsym ktb jl lbyth vkvyn ptyxn lh bjlyth ngd yrvslm vzmnyn tlth byvm hv brk jl-brkvhy vm&l vmvd qdm lhh kl-qbl dy-hv jbd mn-qdmt dnh.

                                      Note the occurence of the aramaic qbl even in the hebrew version. Interestingly enough this verse is explicitly used for a prayer direction, namely Jerusalem. Daniel is nowhere near the vicinity of Jerusalem as he lived his entire lifetime in Babylonian captivity. Need to say more?

                                      Good thing traffic signs aren't in quranic arabic or you'd all be driving in the wrong direction )

                                      I guess many of you have a problem with getting on their knees for God, regardless of the direction that is appointed by God. So be it. I think I provided conclusive evidence.

                                      Pardon my ignorance rlz but,
                                      how is biblical the same as n.f. qblh (&#1607 again!?

                                      Blah, Blah Blah Blah, Blah Blah Blah, Blah Blah Blah, Blah Blah Blah, Blah Blah Blah, Blah Blah Blah, Blah Blah Blah, Blah Blah Blah, Blah Blah Blah, Blah Blah Blah, Blah Blah Blah, Blah Blah Blah, Blah Blah Blah, Blah Blah Blah, Blah Blah Blah, Blah Blah Blah, Blah Blah Blah, Blah Blah Blah, Blah Blah Blah, Blah Blah Blah, Blah Blah Blah, Blah Blah Blah, Blah Blah Blah, Blah Blah Blah, Blah Blah Blah, Blah Blah Blah, Blah Blah Blah, Blah Blah Blah, Blah Blah Blah, Blah Blah Blah, Blah Blah Blah, Blah Blah Blah, Blah Blah Blah, Blah Blah Blah, Blah Blah Blah, Blah Blah Blah, Blah Blah Blah, Blah Blah Blah, Blah Blah Blah, Blah Blah Blah, Blah Blah Blah, Blah Blah Blah, Blah Blah Blah, Blah Blah Blah, Blah Blah Blah, Blah Blah Blah, Blah Blah Blah, Blah Blah Blah, Blah Blah Blah, Blah Blah Blah, Blah Blah Blah, Blah Blah Blah, Blah Blah Blah, Blah Blah Blah, Blah Blah Blah, Blah Blah Blah, Blah Blah Blah, Blah Blah Blah, Blah Blah Blah. qblh is a derivative of qbl.

                                      http//s.quickmeme.com/img/d3/d39c40061a16e8031865933003bd312669fe817377d156470b7af1b7618a5790.jpg

                                      qblh (&#1607 qbylh (&#1607] is derived from the Arabian, emitic root qbl () ~ to oppose, receive, or appeal to


                                      Add.

                                      The Qurn was not "revealed" in (what we call) "Classical Arabic" (but in an* Arabian tongue).

                                      CA was formulated by (post-qurnic) Ajamites (e.g., Sb/Sibawayh); !

                                      ~ Both the script and vocabulary (of the Qurn) bespeak an Aramean origin

                                      • indefinite

                                      Add.

                                      The Qurn doesn't depend/rely on Aramaic lexicons !

                                      E.g., the Qurnic term mskyn (&#1606 is defined/understood as 'poor' in MSA (and many colloquial dialects of Arabic). The term is further rendered a poor (man), in both Aramaic and C.Arabic lexicons! However, to understand the precise, intended meaning (of any Qurnic locution), one will need to dig back to the primary root meaning/s ~ and realize/figure out (on his/her own) that QA mskyn actually denotes the unsheltered = one without a mskn (&#1606 ... Now, since G-D, our Master and Teacher, doesn't use synonyms , the Qurnic term for a 'poor (person)' is fqyr .

                                      Ps.
                                      Mind you, instead of just parroting what others think

                                      I began studying Aramaic/Syriac ~ on my own .

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                                        runninglikezebras
                                        wrote on last edited by
                                        #177

                                        I'll let the moderators deal with the insulting part of your post.

                                        You claim to be studying aramaic but still you can't translate qbl.

                                        Try your translation in Daniel 611 and you will see your are deliberately obscuring the original meaning of 'facing'. I understand you were once a sunni that prayed towards Mecca. Which was a wrong direction. Your denial of a direction (Temple Mount) is equally a mistake.

                                        CA was formulated by (post-qurnic) Ajamites (e.g., Sb/Sibawayh); !

                                        This misconception can be explained by your demonstrated misunderstanding and denial of loanwords.

                                        Your reaction to me using the argument of loanwords inside Quran

                                        How absurd!

                                        G-D's messenger didn't "borrow" any "foreign" words!

                                        That's a misconception on your part.

                                        Peace

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                                          runninglikezebras
                                          wrote on last edited by
                                          #178

                                          Double post

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