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Female servants and maids

Scheduled Pinned Locked Moved Questions/Comments on the Quran
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  • H Offline
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    huruf
    wrote on last edited by
    #14

    I think that when somebody has something in his or her yad, it is within his or her power, authority, etc. When it is the right hand, it is for a good purpose, what sense would it if not have to say the right hand. Some people here say oath, but I think it comes to the same, you undertake to protect somebody, you engage yourself to protect somebody, be it in a marriage, be it in a capacity as employer, be it as somebody under your roof and care... What it is, as abdelilah says, should be in the rules of engagement. But I think that it is an umbrella denomination for a protective relationship without specifying which one. The specification should come as each comes up.

    Salaam

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      unknownuser
      wrote on last edited by
      #15

      Peace Earthdom,

      I still think the Truth is something like what I wrote in my last post. That the "slavery" is rather talk about servants that work for you. Possibly you are allowed to have sex with them, but I think it is if you are not married yet, and I doubt you can force a servant to have sex with you against her/his will. Servants in the past were often bound by oaths to work for you for a fixed number of years for a certain reward.

      Thanks Man of Faith for the input, but this it not what I meant.Please re-read my post again.

      Whether we like it or not, slavery, for mostly economic reasons, had been an integral part of the human society?s fabric for thousands of years in the past. It was a norm, a way of life, accepted by the society as a whole, otherwise it could not have lasted for so long. Abolishing of slavery in the United States took around five years and cost hundreds of thousands of human lives.

      Going back historically to the time of the revelation of The Qur?aan, slavery is part of the fabric and culture of the society. Therefore, The Qur?aan at the time accepts it and deals with it the way it deals with it. Who are we to jump in the middle and interpret the related verses and twist the word of ALLAAH, swt, according to our likings and conjectures just because we?re living in the 21st century, and thank GOD, slavery is no more and sounds disgusting? We are not allowed but to convey the meaning of the verses of The Qur?aan the way they really mean.

      So, interpreting ?MAA MALAKAT AYMAANUKUM? other than meaning ?the slaves that you own? is not Qur?aanic. Anyone interested, we can reason over it according to The Qur?aan.

      Thankyou Khalil for give information regarding slavery in US.Yes aymaan = slave is not Quranic and an innovation.
      But again it still not answer my question My question is What is malakat aymaanuhuna/posses right hand/maintain the oath in 2431 according to you, brother?

      Peace -- thus according to her husband, she too can have sex with their male gardener, mechanic, dentist, doctor, etc.

      &

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        kgwithnob
        wrote on last edited by
        #16

        Thankyou Khalil for give information regarding slavery in US.Yes aymaan = slave is not Quranic and an innovation.
        But again it still not answer my question My question is What is malakat aymaanuhuna/posses right hand/maintain the oath in 2431 according to you, brother?

        I believe you misunderstood me. I said "MAA MALAKAT AYMAANUKUM" means "the slaves that you own". If someone interpret it to mean anything different would not be Qur'aanic.

        Peace,
        Khalil

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          diamantinehoneybunch
          wrote on last edited by
          #17

          Salaam,

          Why is there a person who seems to support slavery on this topic? Seriously it makes my faith become shaken.

          Kind regards,
          Yuliana

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            hicham9
            wrote on last edited by
            #18

            Why is there a person who seems to support slavery on this topic? Seriously it makes my faith become shaken.

            Don't let the impulsive and contemptuous whims of some shake your own faith, Yuliana! We're not allowed to own slaves, on the contrary. The Qur'an (960) clearly specifies that slaves and bonded labourers are to be freed (by us). This is not an option. This is an OBLIGATION ( &#1616.

            The term "owned slave" ('abdan mamlukan &#1575 occurs once in the entire Quranic text. In it (1675), ALLH Almighty presents an example of an owned slave who spends on the needy from his own money. In the sight of ALLH, he's way higher in rank than his avaricious (so-called) master.

            SLM.

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              Man_of_Faith
              wrote on last edited by
              #19

              Sorry. Internet lag caused me to post twice.

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              • M Offline
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                Man_of_Faith
                wrote on last edited by
                #20

                Peace hicham9,

                So then obviously the Quran is either contradicting itself or the verses which allegedly supports slavery are misunderstood and rather mean servants that are bound by contract to you. Never in my life I can believe God is supporting slavery. Thanks for mentioning 960, it makes the Truth more clear. God does not support slavery but is actually anti-slavery. The verses with right hand possesses must mean something else.

                God bless you

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                  kgwithnob
                  wrote on last edited by
                  #21

                  (1675), ALLH Almighty presents an example of an owned slave who spends on the needy from his own money. In the sight of ALLH, he's way higher in rank than his avaricious (so-called) master.

                  SLM.

                  I take it that you were unaware of misquoting and twisting the meaning of the above verse when you did it. See the verse and its true meaning below.

                  1675,

                  Allah coineth a similitude there is a bondman enslaved who hath no power over anything; and there is one whom We have provided from Ourselves with goodly provision and he expendeth thereof secretly and openly; can they be equal? All praise Unto Allah; but most of them know not.

                  Peace,
                  Khalil

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                  • H Offline
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                    hicham9
                    wrote on last edited by
                    #22

                    ... the verses which allegedly supports slavery are misunderstood and rather mean servants that are bound by contract to you. Never in my life I can believe God is supporting slavery. Thanks for mentioning 960, it makes the Truth more clear. God does not support slavery but is actually anti-slavery. The verses with right hand possesses must mean something else.

                    I fully agree my brother, the Qur'anic term/concept in question is definitely misunderstood by many! ALLH Almighty does not support slavery AT ALL, rather He condemns it, and demands the liberation of slaves by manumission, even if one has to purchase them first.

                    I personally believe that "maa malakat aymanukum" is related to "legal relationships", such as marriage. For example, in 423-24, ALLH Almighty prohobits intimate relationships with our

                    1. mothers
                    2. daughters
                    3. sisters
                    4. father's sisters
                    5. mother's sisters
                    6. brother's daughters
                    7. sister's daughters
                      0 mothers who nursed us
                    8. sisters through nursing
                    9. wives' mothers
                    10. step-daughters (except if you didn't have sex with her mother)
                    11. wives of our biological sons
                    12. two sisters simultaneously
                    13. Married women ( &#1616

                    Exactly after "married women" ALLH Almighty states "EXCEPT "maa malakat aymanukum". Meaning, I'm prohibited from having sex with married women EXCEPT the woman with whom I'm bound by oath (my beloved wife). How is this related to slavery again?!!!

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                      diamantinehoneybunch
                      wrote on last edited by
                      #23

                      I take it that you were unaware of misquoting and twisting the meaning of the above verse when you did it. See the verse and its true meaning below.

                      1675,

                      Allah coineth a similitude there is a bondman enslaved who hath no power over anything; and there is one whom We have provided from Ourselves with goodly provision and he expendeth thereof secretly and openly; can they be equal? All praise Unto Allah; but most of them know not.

                      Peace,
                      Khalil

                      Salaam,

                      Hmmmmmm you are a supporter of Marmaduke Pickthall and his translation aren't you? And you justify slavery using his translation.

                      Pickthall was the one who translated the word idribuhunne in verse 434 into scourge.
                      By the way pardon me if the translation you use is not Pickthall's.

                      Why do you support slavery anyway?

                      Kind regards,
                      Yuliana

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                      • K Offline
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                        kgwithnob
                        wrote on last edited by
                        #24

                        Salaam,

                        Hmmmmmm you are a supporter of Marmaduke Pickthall and his translation aren't you? And you justify slavery using his translation.

                        Pickthall was the one who translated the word idribuhunne in verse 434 into scourge.
                        By the way pardon me if the translation you use is not Pickthall's.

                        Why do you support slavery anyway?

                        Kind regards,
                        Yuliana

                        1stHow about EIGHT English translations of verse 1675, OTHER THAN Pickthall's, below?

                        Sahih International Allah presents an example a slave owned and unable to do a thing and he to whom We have provided from Us good provision, so he spends from it secretly and publicly. Can they be equal? Praise to Allah ! But most of them do not know.

                        Yufus Ali Allah sets forth the Parable (of two men one) a slave under the dominion of another; He has no power of any sort; and (the other) a man on whom We have bestowed goodly favours from Ourselves, and he spends thereof (freely), privately and publicly are the two equal? (By no means praise be to Allah. But most of them understand not.

                        Shakir Allah sets forth a parable (consider) a slave, the property of another, (who) has no power over anything, and one whom We have granted from Ourselves a goodly sustenance so he spends from it secretly and openly; are the two alike? (All) praise is due to Allah! Nay, most of them do not know.

                        Muhammad Sarwar God tells a parable about a helpless servant and one to whom He has given honorable provisions and who has spent for the cause of God privately and in public. Can these two people be considered equal? It is only God who deserves all praise, but most people do not know.

                        Mohsin Khan Allah puts forward the example (of two men a believer and a disbeliever); a slave (disbeliever) under the possession of another, he has no power of any sort, and (the other), a man (believer) on whom We have bestowed a good provision from Us, and He spends thereof secretly and openly. Can they be equal? (By no means, not). All the praises and thanks be to Allah. Nay! (But) most of them know not.

                        Arberry God has struck a similitude a servant possessed by his master, having no power over anything, and one whom We have provided of Ourselves with a provision fair, and he expends of it secretly and openly. Are they equal? Praise belongs to God! Nay, most of them know not.

                        Daryabadi Allah propoundeth a similitude there is a bondman enslaved who hath not power over aught; and there is one whom We have provided from Ourselves with goodly provision and he expendeth thereof secretly and openly; can they be equal? All praise Unto Allah; but most of them know not.

                        Mufti Taqi Usm Allah gives an example There is a slave owned (by someone), who has no power over anything, and there is a person whom We have given good provision from Us, and he spends out of it secretly and openly. Are they equal? Praise be to Allah. But, most of them do not know

                        2ndlease read my original post below, in its entirety, then judge me.

                        http//free-minds.org/forum/index.php?topic=9605590.msg332907#msg332907

                        Peace,
                        Khalil

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                          hicham9
                          wrote on last edited by
                          #25

                          I take it that you were unaware of misquoting and twisting the meaning of the above verse when you did it. See the verse and its true meaning below.

                          Dear khalil,

                          Calm down a little! Take a deep breath and act rationally as you proceed.
                          No human is infallible... further, we're discussing the Book of God, not the Book of kgwithnob!

                          You interpret "" (i.e., and whom) as "and THERE IS ONE whom"! Where did you get "THERE IS ONE" from?!

                          Allah coineth a similitude there is a bondman enslaved who hath no power over anything; and THERE IS ONE whom We have provided from Ourselves with goodly provision and he expendeth thereof secretly and openly; can they be equal? All praise Unto Allah; but most of them know not.

                          God sets forth an example An owned slave, unable to do a thing, and (on) whom We have bestowed goodly sustenance from Us, so he spendeth thereof secretly and openly. Can they be equal? Praise be to God. Nay, (but) most of them do not know. {75} And God sets forth an example Two men, one of them is mute, unable to do a thing, while he is a burden to his guardian. Wherever he directs him, he brings no good .... {76}

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                          • K Offline
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                            kgwithnob
                            wrote on last edited by
                            #26

                            ...You interpret "" (i.e., and whom) as "and THERE IS ONE whom"! Where did you get "THERE IS ONE" from?!...

                            http//free-minds.org/forum/index.php?topic=9605590.msg333060;topicseen#msg333060

                            Peace,
                            Khalil

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                            • H Offline
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                              hicham9
                              wrote on last edited by
                              #27

                              Didn't think so either.

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                                diamantinehoneybunch
                                wrote on last edited by
                                #28

                                1stHow about EIGHT English translations of verse 1675, OTHER THAN Pickthall's, below?

                                Sahih International Allah presents an example a slave owned and unable to do a thing and he to whom We have provided from Us good provision, so he spends from it secretly and publicly. Can they be equal? Praise to Allah ! But most of them do not know.

                                Yufus Ali Allah sets forth the Parable (of two men one) a slave under the dominion of another; He has no power of any sort; and (the other) a man on whom We have bestowed goodly favours from Ourselves, and he spends thereof (freely), privately and publicly are the two equal? (By no means praise be to Allah. But most of them understand not.

                                Shakir Allah sets forth a parable (consider) a slave, the property of another, (who) has no power over anything, and one whom We have granted from Ourselves a goodly sustenance so he spends from it secretly and openly; are the two alike? (All) praise is due to Allah! Nay, most of them do not know.

                                Muhammad Sarwar God tells a parable about a helpless servant and one to whom He has given honorable provisions and who has spent for the cause of God privately and in public. Can these two people be considered equal? It is only God who deserves all praise, but most people do not know.

                                Mohsin Khan Allah puts forward the example (of two men a believer and a disbeliever); a slave (disbeliever) under the possession of another, he has no power of any sort, and (the other), a man (believer) on whom We have bestowed a good provision from Us, and He spends thereof secretly and openly. Can they be equal? (By no means, not). All the praises and thanks be to Allah. Nay! (But) most of them know not.

                                Arberry God has struck a similitude a servant possessed by his master, having no power over anything, and one whom We have provided of Ourselves with a provision fair, and he expends of it secretly and openly. Are they equal? Praise belongs to God! Nay, most of them know not.

                                Daryabadi Allah propoundeth a similitude there is a bondman enslaved who hath not power over aught; and there is one whom We have provided from Ourselves with goodly provision and he expendeth thereof secretly and openly; can they be equal? All praise Unto Allah; but most of them know not.

                                Mufti Taqi Usm Allah gives an example There is a slave owned (by someone), who has no power over anything, and there is a person whom We have given good provision from Us, and he spends out of it secretly and openly. Are they equal? Praise be to Allah. But, most of them do not know

                                2ndPlease read my original post below, in its entirety, then judge me.

                                http//free-minds.org/forum/index.php?topic=9605590.msg332907#msg332907

                                Peace,
                                Khalil

                                Salaam,

                                They are hadithers right? Mohsin Khan? rotfl His Qur'an translation is a joke. Read his translations of 2431 and 7833.
                                And some of the translations that you provided are from non-Muslims.

                                Why do you like slavery? nope

                                Kind regards,
                                Yuliana

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                                  Man_of_Faith
                                  wrote on last edited by
                                  #29

                                  Peace,

                                  That translation/interpretation of 1675 really is discriminating. It has to be something wrong with it.

                                  God bless you

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                                  • U Offline
                                    U Offline
                                    unknownuser
                                    wrote on last edited by
                                    #30

                                    I believe you misunderstood me. I said "MAA MALAKAT AYMAANUKUM" means "the slaves that you own". If someone interpret it to mean anything different would not be Qur'aanic.

                                    Peace,
                                    Khalil

                                    Hehehe yes2, sorry2,but from where the word "slave" came from?? hmm
                                    I will quote my post again.

                                    QS 2431 "........ ........."

                                    Translations Shahih International "which their right hands possess"
                                    Pitchkall " or their slaves"
                                    Free-Minds " those maintained by their oaths"

                                    Red word is "aymaan" (&#1606 or "yamiin" ( ) means right, right side, oath (in noun/isim).So Pitchhall's translation is false.

                                    No I want ask you, Khalil.From where the word "slave" came from??

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                                    • B Offline
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                                      Bender
                                      wrote on last edited by
                                      #31

                                      Whether we like it or not, slavery, for mostly economic reasons, had been an integral part of the human society?s fabric for thousands of years in the past. It was a norm, a way of life, accepted by the society as a whole, otherwise it could not have lasted for so long. Abolishing of slavery in the United States took around five years and cost hundreds of thousands of human lives.

                                      Salaamun alayka,

                                      So? What is exactly our point?
                                      You sound like some who try to justify child marriage by "the Mohammed of the hadiths" by saying that it was ok in that time, and as evidence they give some examples about some european rulers who had according to their history also child marriages.

                                      Going back historically to the time of the revelation of The Qur?aan, slavery is part of the fabric and culture of the society. Therefore, The Qur?aan at the time accepts it and deals with it the way it deals with it.

                                      hypno
                                      One of the purposes of The Quran is to lead mankind from darkness into the light, not to give solutions for the wicked things people do.
                                      What a weird way of judging.

                                      Who are we to jump in the middle and interpret the related verses and twist the word of ALLAAH, swt, according to our likings and conjectures just because we?re living in the 21st century, and thank GOD, slavery is no more and sounds disgusting? We are not allowed but to convey the meaning of the verses of The Qur?aan the way they really mean.

                                      So, interpreting ?MAA MALAKAT AYMAANUKUM? other than meaning ?the slaves that you own? is not Qur?aanic. Anyone interested, we can reason over it according to The Qur?aan.

                                      Peace,
                                      Khalil

                                      GREEN what word in ?MAA MALAKAT AYMAANUKUM? is slaves according to you?

                                      Salaam,
                                      Bender

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                                      • N Offline
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                                        Noon_waalqalami
                                        wrote on last edited by
                                        #32

                                        I take it that you were unaware of misquoting and twisting the meaning of the above verse when you did it. See the verse and its true meaning below.

                                        1675,

                                        Allah coineth a similitude there is a bondman enslaved who hath no power over anything; and there is one whom We have provided from Ourselves with goodly provision and he expendeth thereof secretly and openly; can they be equal? All praise Unto Allah; but most of them know not.

                                        Peace,
                                        Khalil

                                        Peace Khalil -- a bondman enslaved?

                                        A devotee/servant in this context is a person willingly devoted.
                                        4172 never disdaineth the messiah that being devotee/servant of to god...

                                        A slave is someone owned against their will and without freedom.
                                        589 not will call you the god in the idle talk in right hands/trust yours and however will call you in what contract you the oath so reparation its feed ten poor from average what thou feeding families yours or clothing them or free neck (i.e. slave) so from not find so a fast three days that reparation right hands/trust yours when have sworn you and guard yeh right hands/trust yours like that shows the god for you signs his that may you thanks giving

                                        520
                                        and when said Moses to people his O people remember yeh grace the god over you when made among you prophets and made you kings and brought you what not given anyone from the creations

                                        Therefore...

                                        1675

                                        1. shows the god example a devotee/servant from kings not capable on thing
                                        2. and from provided we him from us a livelihood good so he spends from it secretly and openly

                                        shall they equal being?
                                        the praise to god rather more them not knowing

                                        Peace

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                                        • K Offline
                                          K Offline
                                          kgwithnob
                                          wrote on last edited by
                                          #33

                                          Peace Khalil -- a bondman enslaved?

                                          A devotee/servant in this context is a person willingly devoted.
                                          4172 never disdaineth the messiah that being devotee/servant of to god...

                                          A slave is someone owned against their will and without freedom.
                                          589 not will call you the god in the idle talk in right hands/trust yours and however will call you in what contract you the oath so reparation its feed ten poor from average what thou feeding families yours or clothing them or free neck (i.e. slave) so from not find so a fast three days that reparation right hands/trust yours when have sworn you and guard yeh right hands/trust yours like that shows the god for you signs his that may you thanks giving

                                          520
                                          and when said Moses to people his O people remember yeh grace the god over you when made among you prophets and made you kings and brought you what not given anyone from the creations

                                          Therefore...

                                          1675

                                          1. shows the god example a devotee/servant from kings not capable on thing
                                          2. and from provided we him from us a livelihood good so he spends from it secretly and openly

                                          shall they equal being?
                                          the praise to god rather more them not knowing

                                          Peace

                                          in 520 means kings, but in 1675 means one who is owned, i.e. a SLAVE.

                                          in 1675 is pronounced "MAN" which means "A PERSON or ONE WHO", you have translated it to mean "FROM" which pronounces "MIN".

                                          In both cases above the way you have translated 1675 has rendered the meaning of the verse quite different from what it really means.

                                          Peace,
                                          Khalil

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