Arabic Linguistic Illustration

cleanfox5982

Salam Dear All ,

Some Arabic linguistic illustration from The Qur'an

Difference between Al-Rahman & Al-Rahim

Al-Rahman is under the pattern Fa3lan
Al-Rahim is under the pattern Fa3il

The Pattern Fa3lan indicate

Incidence ( )
Regeneration ( )
Fullness ( )
Reaching the Maximum of the description ( )
Ex Ghadban / Angry , Mean he was full of anger , the anger regenerate that it reach its maximum .

The Pattern or the formula of Fa3lan as analyse above mean two things

1** that the action was full and perfect till it reach its maximum
2 **that the action will finish once it reach it's maximum
ex 3atchan / thirsty , he was full of thirst and reached its maximum , but once had water the thirst went off .

The Pattern Fa3il indicate

Permanence or settled ( )

Ex We can see it clearly in physical aspect like Tawil / tall , Jamil / Beautiful , those description are permanent on the described person or object .
Khatib / orator , we do not call someone who deliver a only one speech as a Khatib / orator but we call so the one who is experienced in it or versed , same as Fa9ih / jurist .

The Pattern or the formula of Fa3il as analyse above mean

1** that the actor or object is well known by this description to the point that it become permanent

The Qur'an used this two formula / pattern ( Fa3lan & Fa3il ) about the root R H M / To have Mercy ( Rahman & Rahim ) to Indicate the Following

1** That Allah's Rahma / Mercy is Full , Regenerated and permanent
2** If the Qur'an used the pattern Fa3lan ( Rahman ) only , the audience will have suspicion that the mercy is casual will gone until it reach its maximum .
3** So this is why Qur'an used the pattern Fa3il ( Rahim ) , so the audience will understand that the mercy is permanent , that the Allah is well known by his mercy as per the pattern Fa3il / Rahim , and his Mercy is full and regenerated as per the pattern Fa3lan / Rahman , so the two attribute are non-separated and complete each other .

Why The Quran used Rahman first ?

Because Rahman as being under the pattern Fa3lan indicate the perfect fullness of Mercy is a kind of emergency as the Humans are calves or hotheaded , Humains always something tha is fast and regenerated and that is what the pattern Fa3lan indicate so the word Rahman was used .

So I think this English translation would mush a little bit the meaning described above

13 / The Entirely Merciful (Al-Rahman), the Especially Merciful (Al-Rahim) ,
13 /

To be continued Incha Allah

al-amiyr

Salam Dear All ,

Some Arabic linguistic illustration from The Qur'an

Difference between Al-Rahman & Al-Rahim

Al-Rahman is under the pattern Fa3lan
Al-Rahim is under the pattern Fa3il

The Pattern Fa3lan indicate

Incidence ( )
Regeneration ( )
Fullness ( )
Reaching the Maximum of the description ( )
Ex Ghadban / Angry , Mean he was full of anger , the anger regenerate that it reach its maximum .

The Pattern or the formula of Fa3lan as analyse above mean two things

1** that the action was full and perfect till it reach its maximum
2 **that the action will finish once it reach it's maximum
ex 3atchan / thirsty , he was full of thirst and reached its maximum , but once had water the thirst went off .

The Pattern Fa3il indicate

Permanence or settled ( )

Ex We can see it clearly in physical aspect like Tawil / tall , Jamil / Beautiful , those description are permanent on the described person or object .
Khatib / orator , we do not call someone who deliver a only one speech as a Khatib / orator but we call so the one who is experienced in it or versed , same as Fa9ih / jurist .

The Pattern or the formula of Fa3il as analyse above mean

1** that the actor or object is well known by this description to the point that it become permanent

The Qur'an used this two formula / pattern ( Fa3lan & Fa3il ) about the root R H M / To have Mercy ( Rahman & Rahim ) to Indicate the Following

1** That Allah's Rahma / Mercy is Full , Regenerated and permanent
2** If the Qur'an used the pattern Fa3lan ( Rahman ) only , the audience will have suspicion that the mercy is casual will gone until it reach its maximum .
3** So this is why Qur'an used the pattern Fa3il ( Rahim ) , so the audience will understand that the mercy is permanent , that the Allah is well known by his mercy as per the pattern Fa3il / Rahim , and his Mercy is full and regenerated as per the pattern Fa3lan / Rahman , so the two attribute are non-separated and complete each other .

Why The Quran used Rahman first ?

Because Rahman as being under the pattern Fa3lan indicate the perfect fullness of Mercy is a kind of emergency as the Humans are calves or hotheaded , Humains always something tha is fast and regenerated and that is what the pattern Fa3lan indicate so the word Rahman was used .

So I think this English translation would mush a little bit the meaning described above

13 / The Entirely Merciful (Al-Rahman), the Especially Merciful (Al-Rahim) ,
13 /

To be continued Incha Allah

+salaam

A very good thread indeed!

Before asking a few questions I would like to make some important suggestions when transliterating Arabic words.

Arabic has three short vowels and three long vowels. To denote short Arabic vowels we usually use the English vowels a - i - u. In Arabic the letters 'alif (a), yaa' (y), and waaw (w) are used to lengthen the three short vowels respectively. Thus to denote the three Arabic long vowels it is best to write them as aa - iy - uw so that we make a correct distinction in the length of the sounds as well as transferring them as they are in the original.

So we have

a - aa

i - iy

u - uw

So instead of writing Al-Rahman we write it as Al-Rahmaan
And instead of Al-Rahim we write it as Al-Rahiym

likewise the same with

Ghadban / Angry = ghaDbaan (make distinction between the two Arabic letters daal (d) and Daad (D).

3atchan / thirsty = 3aTshaan or "aTshaan ( make distinction between the letters taa' (t) and Taa' (T)).

Questions
According to your knowledge

why does the suffix aan attached to the word mean according to the said meaning?
why does the form iy between the third and last root letters mean according to the said meaning?
can you graphically or mathematically demonstrate the above?

The explanation you gave about al-rahmaan and al-rahiym is it your own explanation from your analysis or the actual definition ALLAAH intended?

+salaam

cleanfox5982

Salam Brother al-amiyr ;

Thank you for your developing comments , here is below some comparative thoughts witch i was lately thinking to discuss it with you , here it comes the occasion

Arabic has three short vowels and three long vowels. To denote short Arabic vowels we usually use the English vowels a - i - u. In Arabic the letters 'alif (a), yaa' (y), and waaw (w) are used to lengthen the three short vowels respectively. Thus to denote the three Arabic long vowels it is best to write them as aa - iy - uw so that we make a correct distinction in the length of the sounds as well as transferring them as they are in the original.

So we have

a - aa

i - iy

u - uw

So instead of writing Al-Rahman we write it as Al-Rahmaan
And instead of Al-Rahim we write it as Al-Rahiym

I still not 100 % convinced regarding the short vowels a - i - u , what it's known in classical Arabic grammar as Arabic Diacritics (Al-Tashkeel ) for the reasons below

1 . The First Qur'an manuscript was without Diacritics ,

http//imageshack.us/a/img33/8278/gi5x.jpg
The Sana'a Manuscript

2 . The only vowels used visually are the ones we saw in the beginning , between or at ends of a word , witch are the ones you consider as Long vowels aa - iy - uw / - - .

Basically My thought is

Originally The Arabic constants are spelled with no motion just "Sukun" , the constants if it's not followed visually with vowels aa - iy - uw / - - then the pronunciation of that constant should be immobile or static .

Try to read the whole Qur'an from the beginning till the end with no Diacritics (Al-Tashkeel ) you'll realize that there is no problem at all , the only difference is that you'r pronunciation will sound more dialect if i would say , in reality it's about the elementary or primary pronunciation ( ) , the other issue in my opinion ( witch i am still thinking about ) is what is known as passive voice .

The reading ( &#1607 of the Qur'an is based under the reasoning of the speech , not under what was developed during the Abbasid era as I?rb ( )
http//en.wikipedia.org/wiki/%CA%BEI%CA%BFrab

( I?rb ( IPA ) is an Arabic term for the system of nominal and adjectival suffixes of Classical Arabic. These suffixes are written in fully vocalized Arabic texts, notably the Qur?n or texts written for children or Arabic learners, and they are articulated when a text is formally read aloud, but they do not survive in any spoken dialect of Arabic from wiki http//en.wikipedia.org/wiki/%CA%BEI%CA%BFrab )

The concept of Arabic Diacritics (Al-Tashkeel ) of the Quran in my opinion is no diffrent that what is known as / Nunation http//en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Nunation

We know that the concept of Diacritics (Al-Tashkeel ) over the calligraphy of the Qur'an was first introduced by Abu Al Aswad Al-douali
(According to tradition, the first to commission a system of harakat was Muawiyah I of the Umayyad dynasty, when he ordered Ziad Ibn Abih, his wl in Basra (governed 664?673), to find someone who would devise a method to transcribe correct reading. Ziad Ibn Abih, in turn, appointed Abu al-Aswad al-Du'ali for the task. Abu al-Aswad devised a system of dots to signal the three short vowels (along with their respective allophones) of Arabic. This system of dots predates the i?jm, dots used to distinguish between different consonants. source wikipedia )

regarding the / Nunation I have seen you mention this in some of your post , witch i listed below and want to comment ...here it comes the occasion .

Answer to question one
In Arabic nouns and adjectives end in a rule called tanwiyn or nunation (ending in 'un&#039. There are few exceptions based on rules.

Examples
a book ----------> kitaabun
a pen -----------> qalamun
a Muslim -------> muslimun

The un at the end shows that the word is indefinite. If a word is definite then it loses the 'n' because a word cannot both be definite as well as indefinie. The definite article in Arabic is 'al'.
Examples of nouns with the definite article.
the book --------> al-kitaabu
the pen ----------> al-qalamu
the Muslim -------> al-muslimu

This un in Arabic is different than the letter n so that at the end of a word it is not written with the letter n but with a special symbol above the letter.

So instead of it is
So instead of it is
So instead of it is

Write the following in Arabic!

darsun = (a lesson)
yadun = (a hand)
baytun = (a house)

In the next post I will answer the other two questions inshaa ALLAAH.

+salaam brother

In my opinion Adding the Nunation ( un ) to the end of words of the Qur'an is simply about creating talhin / A tune or a melody , from this concept was developped the Tajwd (Arabic http//en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Tajwid

The Tajwid is same as The Nunation , same as The Diacritics ( short vowels ) It's about creating the tune or the melody it has nothing to do with the elementary pronunciation , hence it add nothing to the meaning of the constant , and sometimes it twist the meaning , and that is what caused the 7 or 10 KiraAt , how come there is 7 or 10 spelling or recitation of the qur'an ? , this only happened because of Diacritics (Al-Tashkeel )
http//en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Qira%27at

Famous Example

Do we need I?rb ( ) to understand the meaning of the following verse or we simply need the reasoning and Tartil ( reading accordingly all verses with the same subject )

3528 / And among people and moving creatures and grazing livestock are various colors similarly. Only those fear Allah , from among His servants, who have knowledge. Indeed, Allah is Exalted in Might and Forgiving.

We do not need any I?rb ( ) so we do not need any Diacritics (Al-Tashkeel ) above letters or at the end of the words so to know that "Only those fear Allah , from among His servants, are the ones who have knowledge"

We do not need to put a Fatha / short vowel a at the top of the last letter H / of the word Allah , so to become

And we do not need to put a Dammah / short vowel u at the top of the lat letter A of the word al-3olamA , so to be come

We do not need the Fatha / short vowel a so to know who is Agent / http//en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Agent_(grammar)

We do not need the Dammah / short vowel u so to know who is Object http//en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Object_(grammar)

We do not need them simply because through reasoning the speech and the study of the verses accordingly ( Tartil ) We know for no doubt that Allah fear nobody , and that the meaning of 3528 is that the ones who have knowledge who fear Allah not the opposite , and we know that without I?rb ( ) or Diacritics (Al-Tashkeel ) .

I'll reply brother to the other questions soon and w'll provide some other comparative thoughts

To be continued Incha Allah

unknownuser

Peace Alkitab, Al-Amyr

Thanks for struggling create this thread.hopefully you ijtihad will be accepted by God.

We know that the concept of Diacritics (Al-Tashkeel ) over the calligraphy of the Qur'an was first introduced by Abu Al Aswad Al-douali
(According to tradition, the first to commission a system of harakat was Muawiyah I of the Umayyad dynasty, when he ordered Ziad Ibn Sabt

I'm also agree with you if harakat system appeared during Ummayah Caliphate.And I want ask question about hamzah.Or the point is to help non Arab speaker for reading Quran.

Hamzah (&#1569 has main role to create Arabic roots, but when I check in an older mushaf ( you can download it from HERE ) I didn't see any hamzah in there instead alif.

At one side hamzah labeled as harakat, but in one side it also labeled as a huruf.

My question is 1) Is hamzah actually part of arabic huruf (alphabet)??
2) Can you provide the history of huruf hamzah, I mean when the usage for first time, or something??

cleanfox5982

Salam al-amiyr,

likewise the same with

Ghadban / Angry = ghaDbaan (make distinction between the two Arabic letters daal (d) and Daad (D).

3atchan / thirsty = 3aTshaan or "aTshaan ( make distinction between the letters taa' (t) and Taa' (T)).

Yes u'r right ; do Agree it's more precise

Questions
According to your knowledge

why does the suffix aan attached to the word mean according to the said meaning?

The vowel / ... is a ascendant motion or a rising horizontal extension , we feel it , we feel the rising up .
The root R H M from al-Rhmaan was extended horizontally to a maximum pick , mean that there was extra incidence of R H M ( Mercy / Rahmah &#1607 , and that how it fits with the meaning provided for the patter Fa3laan

As for the sound creative sign N it has connection with the deep hidden concept of the order , and that as per

2117 {Originator of the heavens and the earth. When He decrees a matter, He only says to it, "Be / KN," and it is.}

2 - 117

The sound N indicate hiddensse and to enshroud , to cover , we read that in

1681 {And Allah has made for you, from that which He has created, shadows and has made for you from the mountains, shelters (Aknana ) and has made for you garments which protect you from the heat and garments which protect you from your battle. Thus does He complete His favor upon you that you might submit }

16 - 81

http//imageshack.us/a/img199/7507/08gy.jpg
shelters inside Mountains / Aknan

625 {And among them are those who listen to you, but We have placed over their hearts coverings ( aknah ) , lest they understand it, and in their ears deafness. And if they should see every sign, they will not believe in it. Even when they come to you arguing with you, those who disbelieve say, "This is not but legends of the former peoples.}

6 - 25

Another example of the pattern aan as a suffix , we have the word al-chaytaan / Satan

al-chayt linguistically is the extreme or the rest of something witch is not used or useful it has no value ,

2830 {But when he came to it, he was called from shore ( shatie ) of the right side of the valley in a blessed spot - from the tree, "O Moses, indeed I am Allah , Lord of the worlds.}

28 - 30

This is why abliss's attribut is al-shaytaan because he went to the extreme by refusing the order , an the suffix aan in al-shaytaan indicate clearly that al-shayt was full and regenerated to the point that it

Reached the Maximum of the description ( )

The person in history who reached the maximum of al-shayt / extreme or out of the order was abliss so he become al-shaytaan

why does the form iy between the third and last root letters mean according to the said meaning?

will come back incha allah

can you graphically or mathematically demonstrate the above?

I do not have this knowledge

The explanation you gave about al-rahmaan and al-rahiym is it your own explanation from your analysis or the actual definition ALLAAH intended?

I was clear from the begining when i started to post in the forum when i signed my post by the follwoing

approaching study / DRS

1824 "Perhaps Rabbi will guide me to what is nearer than this in comprehension"

So its about a study / DRS , turn , overturn , compare , analyse , conclude , formulate , educe etc
that what was asked in

379 {It is not for a human that Allah should give him the Scripture and authority and prophet-hood and then he would say to the people, "Be servants to me rather than Allah , but Be pious scholars of the Lord because of what you have taught of the Scripture and because of what you have studied / Tdrsuwn }

3 - 79

The study / al- DRS ( turn , overturn , compare , analyse , conclude , formulate , hit things with each other thoughts , arguments , hypothesis ) This root "DRS" come basically from Flail the rural activity after the harvest

http//imageshack.us/a/img849/5237/pg2h.jpg
The activity of Flail ( turn , overturn , hit things with each other .. ) at the primary level ( rural ) provide the basic meaning of the concept of Study at the intellectual level ( ( turn , overturn , compare , analyse , conclude , formulate , hit things with each other thoughts , arguments , hypothesis )

I read study compare , analyse from linguistic scholars from the past but especially from some contemporary linguistic scholars

I value amazingly with a lot appreciation and recognition your teaching regarding the sounds ( witch known as letters ) i find logic and evident and i already started using your teaching in this matter as a base while analyzing and formulating . And i am sure you can give more light and deep understanding mathematically and graphically regarding the pattern Fa3laan & Fa3iyl, waiting for the development

My respect

al-amiyr

Salam al-amiyr,

Yes u'r right ; do Agree it's more precise

The vowel / ... is a ascendant motion or a rising horizontal extension , we feel it , we feel the rising up .
The root R H M from al-Rhmaan was extended horizontally to a maximum pick , mean that there was extra incidence of R H M ( Mercy / Rahmah &#1607 , and that how it fits with the meaning provided for the patter Fa3laan

As for the sound creative sign N it has connection with the deep hidden concept of the order , and that as per

2117 {Originator of the heavens and the earth. When He decrees a matter, He only says to it, "Be / KN," and it is.}

2 - 117

The sound N indicate hiddensse and to enshroud , to cover , we read that in

1681 {And Allah has made for you, from that which He has created, shadows and has made for you from the mountains, shelters (Aknana ) and has made for you garments which protect you from the heat and garments which protect you from your battle. Thus does He complete His favor upon you that you might submit }

16 - 81

http//imageshack.us/a/img199/7507/08gy.jpg
shelters inside Mountains / Aknan

625 {And among them are those who listen to you, but We have placed over their hearts coverings ( aknah ) , lest they understand it, and in their ears deafness. And if they should see every sign, they will not believe in it. Even when they come to you arguing with you, those who disbelieve say, "This is not but legends of the former peoples.}

6 - 25

Another example of the pattern aan as a suffix , we have the word al-chaytaan / Satan

al-chayt linguistically is the extreme or the rest of something witch is not used or useful it has no value ,

2830 {But when he came to it, he was called from shore ( shatie ) of the right side of the valley in a blessed spot - from the tree, "O Moses, indeed I am Allah , Lord of the worlds.}

28 - 30

This is why abliss's attribut is al-shaytaan because he went to the extreme by refusing the order , an the suffix aan in al-shaytaan indicate clearly that al-shayt was full and regenerated to the point that it

Reached the Maximum of the description ( )

The person in history who reached the maximum of al-shayt / extreme or out of the order was abliss so he become al-shaytaan

will come back incha allah

I do not have this knowledge

I was clear from the begining when i started to post in the forum when i signed my post by the follwoing

approaching study / DRS

1824 "Perhaps Rabbi will guide me to what is nearer than this in comprehension"

So its about a study / DRS , turn , overturn , compare , analyse , conclude , formulate , educe etc
that what was asked in

379 {It is not for a human that Allah should give him the Scripture and authority and prophet-hood and then he would say to the people, "Be servants to me rather than Allah , but Be pious scholars of the Lord because of what you have taught of the Scripture and because of what you have studied / Tdrsuwn }

3 - 79

The study / al- DRS ( turn , overturn , compare , analyse , conclude , formulate , hit things with each other thoughts , arguments , hypothesis ) This root "DRS" come basically from Flail the rural activity after the harvest

http//imageshack.us/a/img849/5237/pg2h.jpg
The activity of Flail ( turn , overturn , hit things with each other .. ) at the primary level ( rural ) provide the basic meaning of the concept of Study at the intellectual level ( ( turn , overturn , compare , analyse , conclude , formulate , hit things with each other thoughts , arguments , hypothesis )

I read study compare , analyse from linguistic scholars from the past but especially from some contemporary linguistic scholars

I value amazingly with a lot appreciation and recognition your teaching regarding the sounds ( witch known as letters ) i find logic and evident and i already started using your teaching in this matter as a base while analyzing and formulating . And i am sure you can give more light and deep understanding mathematically and graphically regarding the pattern Fa3laan & Fa3iyl, waiting for the development

My respect

+salaam brother Alkitab

Thank you very much for your explanations. I always enjoy reading your posts. You have no arrogance in your approach but assert carefully your understanding - a true sign of one in the process of diraasatun or ad-diraasatu (study /studying). You have hurried my eagerness to present the knowledge how to read the Book (al-kitaab). I will comment upon the subject of the tashkilaat (visible markings) upon the basic qur'aanic huruwf (letters) and whence their origin inshaa ALLAAH. After that I shall create very simple to understand lessons of the meanings of the basic quraanic aayaat (letters) inshaa ALLAAH.

+salaam

unknownuser

So we have

a - aa

i - iy

u - uw

There is an alternative which I have found in many sources used to help non-Arabic speakers vocalize the letters

a - as in Ramn

u - as in Thamd

as for the long "i" sound, I find the "ee" very practical (as in raeem).

And the fact that the early Qurn scriptures did not have dialectic marks is very similar to the early Old Testament texts (before the Masoretic rendering starting from the 6th century AD), when the text had only consonants and no vowels. It is not difficult to figure out how to read words without vowels. Like for instance, if I write "WSHGNTN", almost immediately it will be read as "Washington".

The strange thing is that most of those who invented the dialectic and articulation marks over the Arabic letters were Persians!
They technically invented Arabic grammar, long after the Scripture was recorded. So pay no heed to those who talk about "grammatical errors" in the Qurn. Grammar was invented AFTERWARDS.

And now, brother Al-Kitab, try convincing the stubborn Orientalists that the word shayn is an original Arabic word, and was most certainly NOT copied from the Latin term "Satani" (but most probably the other way around). You will be met with ridicule, arrogance, and denial.

Incidently, when you kick a ball to a long distance from you, the verb used in Arabic to describe this action is sha (past tense) yashu (present tense). Compare it with the English word "shoot", which describes the very same action. Interesting, isn't it?

This is a good article ...and by the way, where is that place shown in the photo located? (I will guess maybe Greece?).

al-amiyr

There is an alternative which I have found in many sources used to help non-Arabic speakers vocalize the letters

a - as in Ramn

u - as in Thamd

as for the long "i" sound, I find the "ee" very practical (as in raeem).

And the fact that the early Qurn scriptures did not have dialectic marks is very similar to the early Old Testament texts (before the Masoretic rendering starting from the 6th century AD), when the text had only consonants and no vowels. It is not difficult to figure out how to read words without vowels. Like for instance, if I write "WSHGNTN", almost immediately it will be read as "Washington".

The strange thing is that most of those who invented the dialectic and articulation marks over the Arabic letters were Persians!
They technically invented Arabic grammar, long after the Scripture was recorded. So pay no heed to those who talk about "grammatical errors" in the Qurn. Grammar was invented AFTERWARDS.

And now, brother Al-Kitab, try convincing the stubborn Orientalists that the word shayn is an original Arabic word, and was most certainly NOT copied from the Latin term "Satani" (but most probably the other way around). You will be met with ridicule, arrogance, and denial.

Incidently, when you kick a ball to a long distance from you, the verb used in Arabic to describe this action is sha (past tense) yashu (present tense). Compare it with the English word "shoot", which describes the very same action. Interesting, isn't it?

This is a good article ...and by the way, where is that place shown in the photo located? (I will guess maybe Greece?).

+salaam

It does not matter. You are 100% correct as well. As long as there is a proper one to one correspondence from the original Arabic script to the next script with explanation of usage then it would be correct. Seeking the best of all possibilities is the challenge of knowledge and understanding.

In the Book (al-kitaab) there is a big difference between iy and ee, uw and oo, ay and ai, and so forth. But this is knowledge that requires a higher understanding of the reality to be seen and understood.

Yes! shayTaan and 'ibliys and fir"awn are all perfect Arabic words as are all the words in the Qur'aan. It does not matter if ALLAAH first revealed the word to a non Arab and then the word was transferred to the persons who are named after the Arabic language or it was taken directly from an existing root.

The great question that must be asked is this and I put all to this challenge to see if any can answer with proof

What is the definition of Arabic?
or
What makes a word to be an Arabic word?
or
What makes a word to be a non-Arabic word?

He who can answer these question can speak. All others must listen.

+salaam

cleanfox5982

Peace Alkitab, Al-Amyr
My question is 1) Is hamzah actually part of arabic huruf (alphabet)??

Salam Earthdom ,

I think Yes the sound (&#1569 is part of (alphabet) ( Human natural vocal system ) which is called Hamza , i would use the English letter A for identification , its different to the vowel (extension) ( &#257 which is called Alif , there is a slight stop while pronouncing (/ A) , as for ( &#257 it is a free sound from the deep , the stop which is in the ( / A) is known in English as glottal stop , in term of the order in the human vocal system is the 2nd constant ( dense ) we can pronounce after the sound (H / ) which is less denser .

http//imageshack.us/a/img7/3962/pb6m.jpg
(/ A )The Glottal stop

Example of the usage of (&#1569 in the quran , in this particular case the constant ( / A ) is pronounced first and then followed by the extention ( / )

4119 {And I will mislead them, and I will arouse in them desires, and I will command them so they will slit the ears ( Adan ) of cattle, and I will command them so they will change the creation of Allah." And whoever takes Satan as an ally instead of Allah has certainly sustained a clear loss}

Also at the end or between sounds ( letters )

3528{ And among people and moving creatures and grazing livestock are various colors similarly. Only those fear Allah , from among His servants, who have knowledge ( al-3olamA ) . Indeed, Allah is Exalted in Might and Forgiving. }

35 - 28

We made a pronunciation mistake when we pronounce the vowel extension ( &#257 with a glottal stop when it is at the beginning of a word followed by the sound ( / l ) , so we pronounc it (A / ) instead of ( a/ ) ex

al-ktb
alh
al-shms
al-9mr

The first constant to be pronounced at the example above is the sound ( /L ) , as for the ( a / ) is a slight extension , it's about the sound that is automatically pronounced ( created ) before you reach the constant ( /L ) , deeply it's about the transition from 0 to 1 , the ( a / ) before the ( /L ) is about emergence or evolution ( ) if i would say .

There are other cases when the extension ( a / ) is doubled , and that is to indicate Question or interrogation ?
Ex

2140 {Or do you say that Abraham and Ishmael and Isaac and Jacob and the Descendants were Yahud or Nassara ? Say, "Are you ( ntm ) more knowing or is Allah ?" And who is more unjust than one who conceals a testimony he has from Allah ? And Allah is not unaware of what you do.}

2 - 140

There are cases when the sound ( / A) is at the top or at the bottom of the extension ( / ) or ( / ee ) or ( / w ) and it is written as below

in my opinion in this three cases is simply about giving the diacritics ( harakat / motion ) to the sound ( letter ) ( / A ) they mean it should be pronounced with extension , so

is pronounced A
is pronounced Aee
is pronounced Aw

Can you provide the history of huruf hamzah, I mean when the usage for first time, or something??

Will investigate more . Anyway my opinion is that the sound (letter) ( / A ) called Hamza is a constant ( dense ) different then the vowel ( extension ) ( / ) called Alif .

cleanfox5982

There is an alternative which I have found in many sources used to help non-Arabic speakers vocalize the letters

a - as in Ramn

u - as in Thamd

as for the long "i" sound, I find the "ee" very practical (as in raeem).

Salam Pazuzu ,

Yes i think (ee) is more practical for the sound vowel (&#1610
I just notice that i used "i" because from french spelling as it is my second language .
I'll Just add that there is no glottal stop at this sounds / vowels ( ) , ( ee) and ( w) , they are free from the constant ( dense ) ( /A ) , which is known as Hamza .

What do u think brother al-amiyr ?

And the fact that the early Qurn scriptures did not have dialectic marks is very similar to the early Old Testament texts (before the Masoretic rendering starting from the 6th century AD), when the text had only consonants and no vowels. It is not difficult to figure out how to read words without vowels. Like for instance, if I write "WSHGNTN", almost immediately it will be read as "Washington".

Maybe true for other calligraphy , as for text with "Arabic calligraphy" I've never seen one with no vowels . My point is that what is spelled is what is written , Arabic is vocal tongue what we pronounce is what we write is what we read , what isn't spelled isn't written , we know the qur'an wasn't reveled through writings or script ( 9artass ) but through a loading process by spelling / reciting

7516 {Move not your tongue with it, to hasten with recitation of the Qur'an.}

75 - 16

I putt "Arabic calligraphy" between two baguettes as i just come to realize recently that the current Arabic calligraphy which is called al-jazm Calligraphy was developed from the Msnad calligraphy as opposed to the orientalist theory who claim that the current arabic calligraphy ( northern Arabic ) was developed from Nabataeans and aramiac calligraphy located on the Levant or what is called Northwest Semitic

http//imageshack.us/a/img707/4078/c9c7.jpg

South Arabian ( Yemen ) calligraphy The Msnad

By the way as we notice the Msnd calligraphy is from the area of modern Yemen and was used by old communities in that area Sabaic , Hadramautic , Himyaritic..etc , some of their script is called zabr ( Zabr script is the name of the cursive form of the South Arabian script that was used by the ancient Yemenis (Sabaeans) in addition to their monumental script, or musnad . source wikipedia ) which remember us of

26196 { And indeed, it is in the scriptures (zbr) of former peoples. }

26 - 196

For precision i am only talking her about the calligraphy not the spelling / reciting / pronunciation , as it's more probably that the people who had the Msnad calligraphy their tongue was some how Arabic as they lived in the same area , and it's more possibly that other community used to speak Arabic tongue but their writing calligraphy is different .

http//imageshack.us/a/img21/2492/bnag.png
http//en.wikipedia.org/wiki/South_Arabian_alphabet

So the point is that i think the short vowels ( the marks or diacritics ) that was added later wasn't even spelled / recited during the first generation of the qur'an , they use to spell just the constant with no motion , no tune , only if the motion exist already on the original spelling , ex

1- ** The current classical Arabic pronunciation , is al-ketb / The book and its calligraphy with marks is
This is the pronunciation used academically and i think wasn't on the original spelling during the first generation of the qur'an

2- ** The original Arabic pronunciation is alktb / The book all constant are static except the constant ( t ) which is followed by the vowel ( ) so it is extended , this vowel ( extension ) do exist on the original pronunciation not like the mark / vowel ( e ) at the case n?1 ( which i mostly think wasn't on the original spelling but added later by the Persian linguistic scholar) . its calligraphy with no marks is

The 1st pronunciation is used academically and officially
The 2nd pronunciation is used dialecticaly

This is a one example to show what i think was the original pronunciation and then the original calligraphy which had no marks except the already existing three sounds / vowels ( ) , ( ee) and ( w) .

The strange thing is that most of those who invented the dialectic and articulation marks over the Arabic letters were Persians!
They technically invented Arabic grammar, long after the Scripture was recorded. So pay no heed to those who talk about "grammatical errors" in the Qurn. Grammar was invented AFTERWARDS.

According to some of the Abbasid grammar these are errors on the quran because the preposition ( &#1609 is missing in

12 - 16

And the preposition ( ) is missing in

7 - 155

And now, brother Al-Kitab, try convincing the stubborn Orientalists that the word shayn is an original Arabic word, and was most certainly NOT copied from the Latin term "Satani" (but most probably the other way around). You will be met with ridicule, arrogance, and denial.

Yes with no doubt !
Look at this

3822 {When they entered upon David and he was alarmed by them? They said, "Fear not. two adversaries, one of whom has wronged the other, so judge between us with truth and do not exceed ( tashtt) and guide us to the sound path.}

38 - 22

Mean do not go exceed the limit of truth or going far from the truth , that is what( tashtt) in 3822 mean , which has the same connection with the word al-shaytan / satan , and the concept of the English word to shoot as you noticed ( kick something far ) .

Incidently, when you kick a ball to a long distance from you, the verb used in Arabic to describe this action is sha (past tense) yashu (present tense). Compare it with the English word "shoot", which describes the very same action. Interesting, isn't it?

Yes it is !

This is a good article ...and by the way, where is that place shown in the photo located? (I will guess maybe Greece?).

Not sure !! i just found it on the net , by the way the English verb to understand has direct connection with the Arabic word al-drs / to study

al-drs / to study
to understand will result in --- getting knowledge
We get knowledge through study or by studying --- so we understand throught study / al-drs

al-amiyr

Salam Pazuzu ,

Yes i think (ee) is more practical for the sound vowel (&#1610
I just notice that i used "i" because from french spelling as it is my second language .
I'll Just add that there is no glottal stop at this sounds / vowels ( ) , ( ee) and ( w) , they are free from the constant ( dense ) ( /A ) , which is known as Hamza .

What do u think brother al-amiyr ?

+salaam brother Alkitab

I have commented on the matter above and I quote,

+salaam

It does not matter. You are 100% correct as well. As long as there is a proper one to one correspondence from the original Arabic script to the next script with explanation of usage then it would be correct. Seeking the best of all possibilities is the challenge of knowledge and understanding.

In the Book (al-kitaab) there is a big difference between iy and ee, uw and oo, ay and ai, and so forth. But this is knowledge that requires a higher understanding of the reality to be seen and understood.

Yes! shayTaan and 'ibliys and fir"awn are all perfect Arabic words as are all the words in the Qur'aan. It does not matter if ALLAAH first revealed the word to a non Arab and then the word was transferred to the persons who are named after the Arabic language or it was taken directly from an existing root.

The great question that must be asked is this and I put all to this challenge to see if any can answer with proof

What is the definition of Arabic?
or
What makes a word to be an Arabic word?
or
What makes a word to be a non-Arabic word?

He who can answer these question can speak. All others must listen.

+salaam

I hope to post another article on the matter of the origin of the diacritical points (al-'i"jaamu) of some letters ( huruwfu-l-khaTTi-l-mu"jami)and the vowel representations and other markings (at-tashkilaatu) below and above them. After that I will begin with the simplified lessons in the understanding of the Book (al-kitaab) and then see for yourself if the matter would have been settled once and for all time come inshaa ALLAAH.

+salaam

al-amiyr

salaam+

I see that posts 11, 12, and 13 by three different posters have disappeared. Do you find the same problem?

+salaam

al-amiyr

Salam Brother al-amiyr ;

We know that the concept of Diacritics (Al-Tashkeel ) over the calligraphy of the Qur'an was first introduced by Abu Al Aswad Al-douali
(According to tradition, the first to commission a system of harakat was Muawiyah I of the Umayyad dynasty, when he ordered Ziad Ibn Abih, his wl in Basra (governed 664673), to find someone who would devise a method to transcribe correct reading. Ziad Ibn Abih, in turn, appointed Abu al-Aswad al-Du'ali for the task. Abu al-Aswad devised a system of dots to signal the three short vowels (along with their respective allophones) of Arabic. This system of dots predates the ijm, dots used to distinguish between different consonants. source wikipedia )

+salaam brother Alkitab

This is a shorter version of a longer post I intended to write. Greater elaboration can be done if required inshaa ALLAAH.

From my historical perspective and knowledge there is a very important somewhat misunderstood matter that must be corrected. That is about the understanding of the origin of the diacritical points (al-'i"jaamu) and the vowel marks (at-tashkilaatu) above and below the Qur'aanic letters.
This confusion all stems from the fact that the Qur'aan was originally presented to the wider world in a somewhat compressed script without dots and vowels and other markings. Because of this fact it came to be believed by many that the additional markings in the Qur'aan today are the results of personal endeavors and desires of kings and other individuals and that ALLAAH has had nothing to do or even had a say in the matter of how His Recitation/Reading (al-Qur'aan) is now presented to the world. This belief, however, is very very far from the truth. Before I begin to present the alternative view read the following,

Approximately six hundred years after the ascension of the Christ (D+) came Muhammad (S+).
In 610 ACE he made announcement that he was the last messenger prophet of ALLAAH (God) bringing the last divine revelation.
About a hundred days before his death he presented to those who had believed the completion of a twenty three year unfolded revelation wherein it is referred to as
the Recitation/Reading within the Matrix of the Hidden Book.

The Recitation/Reading or the Quraan as its function in the Arabic Language of its revelation
was a direct transmission of knowledge from the Knowledge of God, the All Knower.
It was then dictated by the prophet (S+) to his scribes
who then wrote it down in a written script used at the time in which he was illiterate.
But ALLAAH (God) also sent the letters of his written alphabet

without publicly making known their meanings -
to replace the script that went before
so that the words of the Book (al_kitaab) may be read with its correct symbols.
But ALLAAH (God) also promised that sometime towards the end of the Era He would make known their meanings and then the entire world would see and be astounded at the Truth.

The Quraan is a personal one way communication that was revealed at a particular time from ALLAAH (God) to his eternal messenger on his journey and role to guide all creation throughout eternity.
It is a confirmation of the revelations and events that came before it and a detailed explanation of the Book (al_kitaab) wherein there is no uncertainty.
It is the book of the Seven Seals containing all the Models of Knowledge through which all things are explained in detail.
And it is a guide and a mercy which ALLAAH (God) had sent to those of His creation who would submit towards and believe in His Glorious Holy Name.

... . . . al-amiyr

Again for emphasis and I quote the emboldened brown,

It was then dictated by the prophet (S+) to his scribes
who then wrote it down in a written script used at the time in which he was illiterate.
But ALLAAH (God) also sent the letters of his written alphabet

without publicly making known their meanings -
to replace the script that went before
so that the words of the Book (al_kitaab) may be read with its correct symbols.

ALLAAH sent to His messenger (S+) the Recitation/Reading (al-Qur'aan) as an oral communication after he had taught him via inspiration the Book (al-kitaab). The messenger of ALLAAH was perfectly literate in the writing of the Book (al-kitaab) but illiterate in the general scribblings representing the sounds of the languages including that of the Arabic language.
It was in one of these compressed scribblings that existed that the scribes of the prophet (S+) wrote down the Qur'aan for the general public because of it being the best choice available. At the same time the messenger of ALLAAH (S+) also taught "aliy - his cousin, his son in law, the father of all his descendants, the next king of the Haashemites of the tribe of the Quraysh and thus the stem ("itraH) of his family and my 43rd ancestor- all the correct symbols/marks/letters of the book (al-kitaab). The messenger of ALLAAH (S+) also taught a select few of his closest companions as much as he had taught them.

After the death of the prophet (S+) in 632 CE
The khaliyfaH
Abuw Bakr ("AbdullaaH ibn Abi QuhaafaH)
took supreme command of the Islaamic state.
(He ruled from 632634 CE)

After the death of Abuw Bakr (R+) in 634 ACE
The khaliyfaH
"Umar ibn Al-KhaTTaab (R+)
took supreme command of the Islaamic state.
(He ruled from 634644 CE)

After the death of "Umar ibn Al-KhaTTaab (R+) in 644 ACE
The khaliyfaH
"Uthman ibn "Affaan (R+)
took supreme command of the Islaamic state.
(He ruled from 644656 CE)

After the death of "Uthman ibn "Affaan (R+) in 656 ACE
The khaliyfaH
"Aliy ibn Abiy Taalib (R+)
took supreme command of most of the Islaamic state.
But Mu"aawiyah1 ibn Abiy Sufyaan resisted and maintained control of the western territories from Syria.
(He ruled from 656661 CE)

After the death of "Aliy ibn Abiy Taalib (R+) in 644 ACE
The khaliyfaH
Mu"aawiyah1 ibn Abiy Sufyaan
took supreme command of the Islaamic state.
(He ruled from 661680 CE)

Salam Brother al-amiyr ;

We know that the concept of Diacritics (Al-Tashkeel ) over the calligraphy of the Qur'an was first introduced by Abu Al Aswad Al-douali
(According to tradition, the first to commission a system of harakat was Muawiyah I of the Umayyad dynasty, when he ordered Ziad Ibn Abih, his wl in Basra (governed 664673), to find someone who would devise a method to transcribe correct reading. Ziad Ibn Abih, in turn, appointed Abu al-Aswad al-Du'ali for the task. Abu al-Aswad devised a system of dots to signal the three short vowels (along with their respective allophones) of Arabic. This system of dots predates the ijm, dots used to distinguish between different consonants. source wikipedia )

Stage 0ne
Muawiyah I of the Umayyad dynasty, when he ordered Ziad Ibn Abih, his wl in Basra (governed 664673), to find someone who would devise a method to transcribe correct reading.

Stage Two
Ziad Ibn Abih, in turn, appointed Abu al-Aswad al-Du'ali for the task.

Stage Three
Abu al-Aswad devised a system of dots to signal the three short vowels (along with their respective allophones) of Arabic.

And who was Abu al-Aswad al-Du'ali( &#8206 (ca. 603688 CE)
He was none other than the student of my 43rd ancestor "Aliy ibn Abiy Taalib - the cousin, the son in law, the father of all the descendants, the next king of the Haashemites of the tribe of the Quraysh and thus also the continuation of the stem ("itraH) of the family of the messenger of ALLAAH (S+)to whom ALLAAH revealed the Book (al-kitaab) and later the Recitation/Reading (al-Qur'aan).

Here is some proof and discussions by scholars about the matter.

Ab? 'Ubaydah narrated about Ab? al-Aswad al-Du'al?

"Ab? al-Aswad derived grammar from cAl? Ibn Ab? T?lib, for whom may there be peace, but he did not disclose to anyone what he had learned from cAl?, whose countenance may Allah honour, until Ziyad appointed him for the composition of something to serve as a guide to the people, so that they could understand the book of Allah. Ab? al-Aswad asked to excused from this task, until one time when he heard a reader recite, Allah is quit of the idolators and of His Apostle (Qur'?n 93 should have been read as Allah is quit of the idolators and so is His Apostle). Then he said, "I never supposed that the condition of the people would come to this!" So he returned to Ziyad and said, "I will do what the emir has ordered. Let there be sought for me a scribe who is intelligent and obedient to what I say". They brought, therefore, a scribe from the cAbd al-Kays Tribe, but he was not satisfied with him. Then they came with another one, about whom Ab? al-cAbbas al-Mubarrad said, "I regard him to be one of those ." So Ab? al-Aswad said , "If you see that I open my mouth in pronouncing a letter, place a mark above, on top of it. If I close my mouth , place a mark in front of the letter, and if I split double the mark." So this was the marking system of Ab? al-Aswad. "
Bayard Dodge (Editor and Translator),
The Fihrist of al-Nadim, 1970,
Columbia University Press, pp. 87-88.

"When we come to consider the vowel signs, 1st century manuscripts are of no aid, since no such signs appear in any secular document of that date. However, Kur'?n manuscripts credited to the period show a consistent vowel system in which a single red dot above, below, or to the side of a letter stood for the vowels A, I, and U respectively, and two such dots indicated the tanwin. The text of early Kur'?ns, however, is never completely voweled, the vowel sign for one or more of the letters of a given word being used only where it was essential for a correct reading. The Arabic traditions place the introduction of the system early in the Muslim era, in fact crediting cAl? with it. Whether cAl? deserves the credit or not makes little difference for the date in question, for the majority of the sources credit a contemporary of cAl?, Ab? al-Aswad al-Du'al?, with the system. They tell how, having at first refused to introduce the system at the request of Ziyad Ibn Abihi, governor of Irak, he finally did so when he heard the Kur'?n being wrongly recited."
Nabia Abbott,
The Rise of The North Arabic Script & Its Kur'?nic Development, 1939,
The University of Chicago Press, Chicago, p. 39.

If one has knowledge of the Book (al-kitaab) then one will know why all the letters sound as they do; named as they are; shaped as they are; and everything else associated with this knowledge. No one else invented anything. It is all the knowledge of ALLAAH and it is preserved with a family that He has chosen through the ages until the end when it shall be made universally known and the great sacrifice is paid. It is this knowledge that I am now presenting to the world since last year.

May ALLAAH guide to the understanding of His aayaat( signs/symbols/marks/letters) inshaa ALLAAH.

+salaam
al-amiyr ... . . .

cleanfox5982

+salaam brother Alkitab

This is a shorter version of a longer post I intended to write. Greater elaboration can be done if required inshaa ALLAAH.

From my historical perspective and knowledge there is a very important somewhat misunderstood matter that must be corrected. That is about the understanding of the origin of the diacritical points (al-'i"jaamu) and the vowel marks (at-tashkilaatu) above and below the Qur'aanic letters.
This confusion all stems from the fact that the Qur'aan was originally presented to the wider world in a somewhat compressed script without dots and vowels and other markings. Because of this fact it came to be believed by many that the additional markings in the Qur'aan today are the results of personal endeavors and desires of kings and other individuals and that ALLAAH has had nothing to do or even had a say in the matter of how His Recitation/Reading (al-Qur'aan) is now presented to the world. This belief, however, is very very far from the truth. Before I begin to present the alternative view read the following,

Salam Brother al-amiyr ,

Thank you for your clarification , i kindly require more analysis and evidence if you can and if you have time regarding the subject .

As for what is known as (al-'i"jaam ) putting dots above or under similar constant to distinguish the difference between each ones in term of spelling , that sound pretty logic

As it is difficult for non familiar with Arabic recitation to distinguish while reading Arabic script between these constants without dots

Position in word Isolated Final Medial Initial sound
Glyph form
j
kh
b
t
n

And so on for the other similar constant by form that need dots to distinguish between them when it is written

The issue remain in the vowel marks (at-tashkilaat) , what i am 99.99 % sure about it is that the last sound / letter in every word in the quran used to be spelled pronounced with no motion or extension or tone or nunation except if that word ends already with some of the true existing three vowels sounds / letter , which are
( ) , ( ee) and ( w) , if the lst constant id not followed by one of these three vowel sounds then the pronunciation should be static , immobile " skn" .

Exemple

Recitation 1 All Letters are pronounced with their diacritics ( short vowels) , the official well known academic recitation

12 al-hamdu li allhi rabi al-3lameena
13 al-rahmni al-raheemi

Recitation 2 Letters are pronounced with their diacritics except The last sound / letter in each word that is spelled static

12 al-hamd li allh rab al-3lameen
13 al-rahmn al-raheem

Some comments

The first recitation have tune and a melody at the end of the words it sound Italian not Arabic
pronouncing the word allh as allhi give a totally different meaning from a linguistic point of view

Explination
allhi is the agent noun ( ) of the verb laha , yalhu , the noun is al-lahw / amusement

751 { Who took their religion as distraction and amusement ( lahw ) and whom the worldly life deluded." So today We will forget them just as they forgot the meeting of this Day of theirs and for having rejected Our verses.}

8010 {To him you pays no heed ( talaha) . }

You see why is it important that we should be careful about short vowels added to the original pronunciation especially the last sound / letter , we i pronounce allhi it sound the one who play , amuse , entertain , extremely the opposite of the meaning of the pronunciation allh the one who do not play at all .

2117 Had We wanted to play games ( lahwa ) , We could have certainly done so with things at hand.

To be continued Incha allh

al-amiyr

Salam Brother al-amiyr ,

Thank you for your clarification , i kindly require more analysis and evidence if you can and if you have time regarding the subject .

As for what is known as (al-'i"jaam ) putting dots above or under similar constant to distinguish the difference between each ones in term of spelling , that sound pretty logic

As it is difficult for non familiar with Arabic recitation to distinguish while reading Arabic script between these constants without dots

Position in word Isolated Final Medial Initial sound
Glyph form
j
kh
b
t
n

And so on for the other similar constant by form that need dots to distinguish between them when it is written

The issue remain in the vowel marks (at-tashkilaat) , what i am 99.99 % sure about it is that the last sound / letter in every word in the quran used to be spelled pronounced with no motion or extension or tone or nunation except if that word ends already with some of the true existing three vowels sounds / letter , which are
( ) , ( ee) and ( w) , if the lst constant id not followed by one of these three vowel sounds then the pronunciation should be static , immobile " skn" .

Exemple

Recitation 1 All Letters are pronounced with their diacritics ( short vowels) , the official well known academic recitation

12 al-hamdu li allhi rabi al-3lameena
13 al-rahmni al-raheemi

Recitation 2 Letters are pronounced with their diacritics except The last sound / letter in each word that is spelled static

12 al-hamd li allh rab al-3lameen
13 al-rahmn al-raheem

Some comments

The first recitation have tune and a melody at the end of the words it sound Italian not Arabic
pronouncing the word allh as allhi give a totally different meaning from a linguistic point of view

Explination
allhi is the agent noun ( ) of the verb laha , yalhu , the noun is al-lahw / amusement

751 { Who took their religion as distraction and amusement ( lahw ) and whom the worldly life deluded." So today We will forget them just as they forgot the meeting of this Day of theirs and for having rejected Our verses.}

8010 {To him you pays no heed ( talaha) . }

You see why is it important that we should be careful about short vowels added to the original pronunciation especially the last sound / letter , we i pronounce allhi it sound the one who play , amuse , entertain , extremely the opposite of the meaning of the pronunciation allh the one who do not play at all .

2117 Had We wanted to play games ( lahwa ) , We could have certainly done so with things at hand.

To be continued Incha allh

+salaam brother Alkitaab

I now understand better the focus of your attention and I quote,

The issue remain in the vowel marks (at-tashkilaat) , what i am 99.99 % sure about it is that the last sound / letter in every word in the quran used to be spelled pronounced with no motion or extension or tone or nunation except if that word ends already with some of the true existing three vowels sounds / letter , which are
( ) , ( ee) and ( w) , if the lst constant id not followed by one of these three vowel sounds then the pronunciation should be static , immobile " skn" .

You gave following example,

Exemple

Recitation 1 All Letters are pronounced with their diacritics ( short vowels) , the official well known academic recitation

12 al-hamdu li allhi rabi al-3lameena
13 al-rahmni al-raheemi

Recitation 2 Letters are pronounced with their diacritics except The last sound / letter in each word that is spelled static

12 al-hamd li allh rab al-3lameen
13 al-rahmn al-raheem

Some comments

The first recitation have tune and a melody at the end of the words it sound Italian not Arabic
pronouncing the word allh as allhi give a totally different meaning from a linguistic point of view

There is a very big difference between these two sentences. Both, however, are equally valid in their own domains of usage. The first one on the human plane and the other on the great plane of the reality where there must be smooth flowing.

12 al-hamdu li allhi rabi al-3lameena
13 al-rahmni al-raheemi

12 al-hamd li allh rab al-3lameen
13 al-rahmn al-raheem

1-al hamd li allaaH rabb al "aalamiyn

2-alhamd li allaaH rabb al"aalamiyn

3-alhamd lillaaH rabbal"aalamiyn

4-alhamdlillaaHrabbal"aalamiyn

5-al_hamdu_li_llaahi_rabbi_l_"aalamiyn.

6-alhamdu_li_llaahi_rabbi_l"aalamiyn.

7-alhamdulillaahirabbil"aalamiyn.

Because the Recitation/Reading (al-Qur'aan) is the programming language of the Book (al-kitaab) we use No. 7 above to generate the intended scene. Just like in computer language to use the underscore to ensure flowing without the breaks.

N.1 above are just the words and the human brain can give the understanding of its meaning.

They are all correct but they will also create their own problems in the absence of knowledge. Because I am now the only man left on earth who have the knowledge of the book (al-kitaab) I have to do everything myself to explain the Book (al-kitaab) - an enormous task that requires skill on the human domain in almost everything. One of the explanations is the graphical explanation of the qur'aanic sentence that you made as an example that I will begin soon. When I am done with the basmallaaH (bismillaaHirrahmaanirrahiym) then I will upload it here inshaa ALLAAH.

The above is but a short explanation. I hope to discuss with you further from my perspective as well as from yours and others inshaa ALLAAH.

+salaam

cleanfox5982

The above is but a short explanation. I hope to discuss with you further from my perspective as well as from yours and others inshaa ALLAAH.

+salaam

Welcome brother

cleanfox5982

Does the words in the Qur'an ending with the symbol should the last pronunciation be h for hotel or th for talk ?

What is the logic behind having two different symbols of one same pronunciation , i mean the bounded which is pronounced th and the openwhich is also pronounced th ?what is the logic behind ?

+salaam brother Alkitab

I am preparing this in the easy and simple to understand lessons of the Book (al-kitaab) and will upload soon inshaa ALLAAH. There is a big difference between the two in the Book (al-kitaab)

Just for now here is a quick example.

There is a line of numbers here represented by points.

. . . . . . . . . . >

every point represents the Arabic letter t (taa&#039 but the last point is always represented by the Arabic letter T (Taa&#039. The whole (from the beginning point to the end point) is represented by the Arabic letter H (Haa&#039

When one began the journey and did not reach the end then we use H

When the journey has ended then we use t.

R = the person

. . . R . . . . . .H

. . . . . . . . . R.t

That is a small hint.

+salaam

Salam ,

I replied here because this thread i'll consider it as the Anatomy of linguistic , then use the anatomy in the appropriate section .

The hint was sufficient brother , i said it before and i'll repeated it you posses precious knowledge in that matter which many fail to see it or not been convinced yet .

Believe me i was thinking how the H in salah , zakah , hayah returned into th in salatee , zkatee hyatee , and i concluded that it is because it sound loose and not convincing if wa say salahi , zakahi , hayahi , i thought the th give stabilization , and when i read your hint i straight away saw the connection , the H returned th in salati ( my salah) , zkati ( my zakah) , hayati ( my hayah) , because it was reached , it belong to the one who reached it

When one began the journey and did not reach the end then we use H
When the journey has ended then we use t.

R = the person

. . . R . . . . . .H

. . . . . . . . . R.t

And this is why we use th in the front of the present tense verb
tusali
tuzaki

When someone finished , accomplished the salah , zakah , he had reached it , so it belong to him so this is why we use th at then end of the past tense verb
salayet
zakayet

R = the person

Somone is doing salah at present time
. . . R . . . . . .H
sssssssssaaaaalllllllllllllllllllllllaaaaaaaaaH
tttttttssssssaaaaaaallllllllllllllllllllllliiiiiiii

The guy finished his salah at past time
. . . . . . . . . R.t
ssssssssaaaaaaaaaallllllllllllaaaayyyyyyyyt

When he reached and finished the salah , the t that was on the begining in the present tense become at the end , that mean the salah is belonging the the one who reached it so he will say salati ( my salah )

6162 (Say, "Indeed, Salati, Nusuki , my living and my dying ( Mamati) are for Allah , Lord of the worlds.)

That makes a perfect sens brother , thanks for the hint , i saw some other connection which i'll post later here .

al-amiyr

Salam ,

I replied here because this thread i'll consider it as the Anatomy of linguistic , then use the anatomy in the appropriate section .

The hint was sufficient brother , i said it before and i'll repeated it you posses precious knowledge in that matter which many fail to see it or not been convinced yet .

Believe me i was thinking how the H in salah , zakah , hayah returned into th in salatee , zkatee hyatee , and i concluded that it is because it sound loose and not convincing if wa say salahi , zakahi , hayahi , i thought the th give stabilization , and when i read your hint i straight away saw the connection , the H returned th in salati ( my salah) , zkati ( my zakah) , hayati ( my hayah) , because it was reached , it belong to the one who reached it

And this is why we use th in the front of the present tense verb
tusali
tuzaki

When someone finished , accomplished the salah , zakah , he had reached it , so it belong to him so this is why we use th at then end of the past tense verb
salayet
zakayet

R = the person

Somone is doing salah at present time
. . . R . . . . . .H
sssssssssaaaaalllllllllllllllllllllllaaaaaaaaaH
tttttttssssssaaaaaaallllllllllllllllllllllliiiiiiii

The guy finished his salah at past time
. . . . . . . . . R.t
ssssssssaaaaaaaaaallllllllllllaaaayyyyyyyyt

When he reached and finished the salah , the t that was on the begining in the present tense become at the end , that mean the salah is belonging the the one who reached it so he will say salati

That makes a perfect sens brother , thanks for the hint , i saw some other connection which i'll post later here .

+salaam brother Alkitab

Did I not always say that you are a man of wisdom and good understanding. You are searching depths of knowledge that not many are doing. You will stumble along the way like all of us have stumbled. You will come up with theories and understandings like all of us have. But in the end of the day you will recognize like all of us have recognized the reality when we have seen it inshaa ALLAAH.

I would so much have liked to explain why the w comes after the l in the Arabic word Sala(w)H but so much knowledge must first be given and understood to know it.

Questions for now!

Do you still remember how

the sound S (Saad) came into being?
the d (daal) arose?
the short vowel 'a' (fathaH) represent?
the long vowel 'aa' represent?
the 'w' (waaw) represent?
the 'y' (yaa&#039?
the 'n' (nuwn)?
the 'm' (miym)?
the 't' (taa&#039?
the 'T' (Taa&#039

+salaam

cleanfox5982

continued from post 3 #10
Post 004
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Salam dear knowledgeable brother al-amiyr
Salam dear everybody ,

Some fruits started already to ripen

Anatomy Of the book ( A trial using al-amyir's knowledge )

This is my understanding /DRS so far using your knowledge posted in the forum to analyze the verse 3682

allaah (swt) created the first thing by / from his will

36 - 82

3682 (His order is only when He intends a thing that He command it, "Be," in the "become" .)

( kn fi kuwn / / be in the become or be in the existence or reality )

When al-qur'an mention how allaah talk create a thing in the verse above he mentioned five steps before the creation

** 1 - First His will ( when he intends) / arad ( will come back later )

** 2- Second the order /al-amr through the r .there is a the centralization , the m is a thing it is the available raw material (a number ) and then the r the activator .

**3-Third the command = al-Qawl ( will come back later )

Between Third and Four there is To Him (L H &#1607 notice there is already a thing there it's the L which brother al-amiyr describing in his teaching as presenting the Void or the infinite dimensional L ( which is not 0) .
And there is the (H&#1607 , the whole and the both extreme infinity

http//imageshack.us/a/img850/486/ou4o.jpg

Notice the symbol of infinity it has the sound H extended into both
extremity making a two linked together same as the English H brother al-amiyr mentioned in some of his posts.

**4-Four al-takwin / construction from kun ?? translated as Be , notice the con in construction , the K represent the two dimensional plan were the m by the activator r ( ruh&#1581 will be transformed into n

**5-Five formation = al-takawn the word in the verse is fayakun translated to English as it is . The F is the opener , the link, the trace to follow moved and revolted by the yi who gives life to the m ( the thing &#1574 who was dead ( motionless ) , so it moved in kawn , al-kawn the three dimensional plan as the motion given by uw ( going out motion;coming in motion; going in and out motion (from any point) and as it was squared by the k in kawn

/ kun fi kawn / be in the numerical three dimensional plan

I saw you put zero ) o ( aside , and you started with the centralization represented by the which make perfect sense

I always was thinking about the concept of nothingness or zero 0 or empty set (0) . The Concept of pure nothingness or what is called in classical Arabic a al-3adam is one of the fundamental issue in philosophy , anthology , theoretical mathematics and logical thinking .

In the qur'an it never been said that allaah ( swt) created the heavens and the earth out of nothing .

I translate the verse below 5235 as per my understanding , in all the English translation i saw was understood and translated as have they been created out of nothing..
or
have they been created from nothing..
or
have they been created by nothing ..

My translation

5235 ( Or have they been created out from something else ? Or are they the creators? )

The verse above is a disapproval interrogation , because they were not created from something else , it literately mean from something else which is different from the concept of nothingness

When the quran is addressing the concept that is opposed to the existence of a ( thing ) it is described as ( Something else &#1574

allah ( swt) in the qur'an is described as , and i'll use my English translation 4211 ( theresn't a thing like him &#1574 this translation is different than saying ( there is nothing like him ) or ( he do not look like anything ) , because when you say something look like nothing or do not look like anything it's a fallacy it is logically impossible , you are talking about what is known as zero 0 pure nothingness ( no existence )

I personally think that in the deep understanding there is no Arabic name for the philosophic and anthologic issue of pure nothingness , what do not exist do not have a name as simple as that , mean that what do not exist do not have attributes and can not be a subject or object of any action or thought or will or analyze or observation or comparison or measurement or....can have any sort of connection with existence .

It is fallacy to say that allah ( swt) is like no thing , because no thing is zero 0 , allah is not zero , the issue of theoretical philosophy and mathematics is that they consider the nothing as a thing they are relating existence to no existence , allaah's will and power is over the thing not the nothing , because the pure nothingness ( the zer0 ) is neither a subject or a object so to that something would be connected or related to it .

So in my opinion there is no Arabic word for the concept of pure nothingness (the zerO thing) . In the quran farigha from the verb afragha do not pure emptiness but been emptied or finished with something / . There is a word in the quran that describe the non consistency which is al-fawt

673 (who created seven heavens in layers. You do not see in the creation of the Most Merciful any inconsistency (tafawt) . So return vision ; do you see any breaks?)

I most probably think from a etymological analysis is that from this word al-fawt where it originate the English and french term

La fuite (leakage ) and from the concept of leakage which is a error it come the frensh english term la faute ( fault )

fuite
n.
flight ; leak

fuite
n.
leakage

http//imageshack.us/a/img842/4858/3mzt.jpg

The phenomenon of "la fuite / leakage " of something will result in the emptiness of that thing , and it is from this concept where we have the English and french term ; le vide / the void , because leakage will result into void.

Back to the misunderstanding created by the concept of zerO the traditional Muslim spread while debating with atheists that

allah ( swt ) created the universe out of nothing
Atheists reply it is logically impossible to create something out of nothing
Traditional Muslims reply nothing is impossible for allaah ( swt)

What is the fallacy in that debat ?

allaah didn't create the universe from zero thing as there is no zero existence , because it's impossible that zero existence become possible so allaah will create something from it 0 is impossible to be 1 = nothing can't be a thing = So The 1 create thing from the 1 not from the 0 not because he can't but because the 0 can't be in kuwn ( reality ) as it is already nothing

The zero existence is impossible because zero existence can't lead to existence , if you say i do not believe that i exist , then this is just a sophistry , it's impossible to be a observer while you are talking and thinking about zero existence and in the same time you do not exist , and once you believe that you exist it's impossible that there is a zero existence before your start to observe.

So we see that allah didn't create kuwn / the universe from zero existence as there is his command / kuwlh who manifest his will /iradth to a thing /chayA through his order /amrh in the whole infinite dimension L H , the description given above is just a sort of direction not the real physical way of creation , but i believe with the help of arithmetic who is the record of physical events we can come mush closer to understand and see the event incha allaah , why arithmetic ? because the sounds that are in interaction are designed based on numbers , and the whole is designed by 1 as 1 is in all numbers

To be continued with the name allaah , salaah and kalimat .......incha allaah
Brother al-amiyr if you want me to stop i'll stop , i do not want to rush even-though i believe i am already in ?

al-amiyr

Salam dear knowledgeable brother al-amiyr
Salam dear everybody ,

Some fruits started already to ripen

Anatomy Of the book ( A trial using al-amyir's knowledge )

This is my understanding /DRS so far using your knowledge posted in the forum to analyze the verse 3682

allaah (swt) created the first thing by / from his will

36 - 82