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  4. Is SALAT established for the REMEMBRANCE of Allah?

Is SALAT established for the REMEMBRANCE of Allah?

Scheduled Pinned Locked Moved Salat & Zakat
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  • R Offline
    R Offline
    runninglikezebras
    wrote on last edited by
    #14

    You used other examples in another thread of yours, I'll use them to show you how ENJOINED WITH and ENJOINED TO are related to eachother

    The code ENJOINED the companies TO trade fair.

    => Logic dictates this means there was no earlier instruction for companies to trade fair from any code. The establishment of fair trade is in the FUTURE. In the past companies were not bound by convenant (enjoined) to trade fair. Companies can not be held responsible for unfair trade that occurred before that instruction.

    Once these companies sign, ratify that convenant to trade fair, one can say

    The code ENJOINED the companies WITH fair trade.

    => Logic dictates in this expression the companies have already ratified a convenant to trade fair in THE PAST. Not all companies may in reality be trading fair in the present but they are still bound by the convenant/agreement they ratified in the past to trade fair and can be held responsible, even for actions in THE PAST (upto the moment of ratifying that code).

    Relating this back to Jesus. Jesus already received the scripture, was a Prophet, made a convenant WITH God in the PAST. He is enjoined WITH. (1930 is present tense, the code was already ratified before these verses). Given these speak about a child in the cradle, it's not incorrect to say this instruction was given from birth. Looking inside Quran, probably even before Jesus' birth. As Quran describes mailaika sent to Maryam (345). None to Jesus however.

    ENJOINED TO

    NO INSTRUCTION - RECEPTION OF THE INSTRUCTION - EXECUTION OF THE INSTRUCTION

    ENJOINED WITH

    RECEPTION OF THE INSTRUCTION - EXECUTION OF INSTRUCTION - EXECUTION OF INSTRUCTION/REAFFIRMATION OF INSTRUCTION - EXECUTION OF THE INSTRUCTION

    Peace

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    • F Offline
      F Offline
      FreedomStands
      wrote on last edited by
      #15

      You have taken one step forward, brother, but not reached all the way.

      Be well

      Sometimes what lays ahead of people is hell.

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      • H Offline
        H Offline
        hafeez_kazi
        wrote on last edited by
        #16

        Peace good logic

        If I say" Allahu awsani bi alamali alssalih" and I translate as God enjoined me to do the good deeds" what is wrong with that?

        I have ignored the "bi" ?

        You been assigned a job of translating Quran which are the words of Allah and not of a mankind.
        what is the reason behind omitting the word of Allah from the translation. What compels you do this. With words omitted how can you claim your translation as perfect. Why are you committing the same mistake which the traditional translators committed. Have you ever thought why it is BIL SALAT and not SALAT in the verse? What was the need for Allah to prefix BI with SALAT. By ignoring the preposition you are indirectly challenging the wisdom of Allah. Allah's verses are perfect with BI and it needs no change. By omitting BI from the translation the translators have proved that BI is WRONG and useless in the verse and they have corrected it by removing it from their translation.

        BI is an inseparable preposition. There are hundreds of words prefixed with BI in the Quran, why the BI of all the verses is not removed from the translation? Why BI of only specific verses are removed? Doesn't this rattle your mind?

        I am not the authority to question you why you ignored BI. You are at liberty to follow your desires.

        I believe in honesty and honesty includes the translation of the Quran according to the WORDS of the Quran, because Allah has given me no right to remove/omit/neglect any of His words from the translation. I f I do this DELIBERATELY then I am dishonest to Allah and the reader.

        No offence please. I did not intend to hurt your feeling/emotions/sentiments. If you feel offended then I ask for forgiveness in advance.

        Thanks

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        • G Offline
          G Offline
          good_logic
          wrote on last edited by
          #17

          Peace Hafeez.

          I have not removed "bi" from my translation.That is why I put the question to you.

          For me the whole expression including "bi" has that meaning.
          I have explained by giving you examples.

          Please do not apologise,you are entitled to ask. I have not been offended.

          GOD bless you brother.
          Peace.

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          • H Offline
            H Offline
            hafeez_kazi
            wrote on last edited by
            #18

            PEACE GOOD LOGIC

            Allahu GOD has awsani ENJOINED ME bi WITH/BY/FOR/IN (whatever that fits the context) alamali THE DEEDS alssalih THE GOOD

            There is no way that you can DELETE the preposition. There is no WITH/BY/FOR/IN etc in your translation.

            This is not a literal translation but a casual translation.

            We are Best Aware of what they say, and thou (O Muhammad) art in no wise a compeller over them. But warn BY the Qur'an him who feareth My threat 5045

            can you translate the above verse by omitting/deleting/neglecting BI. No you cant because you are forced to do so otherwise you will end up with a nonsense translation.

            Why this honesty is not displayed while translating other verses of BI. It was done intentionally.

            He said, "He says, 'It is a cow neither trained to plow the earth nor to irrigate the field, one free from fault with no spot upon her.' " They said, "Now you have come with the truth." So they slaughtered her, but they could hardly do it. (Al-Baqara 71)

            I can give you 100s of verses where honesty is maintained. But whenever the BI or any other preposition in the verse contradicts or is contrary to the belief / hypothesis / practice of the sectarians/hadithers, the translators distort the translation by omitting the prepositions.

            4101

            Translation Shorten the salat. MIN disappears in the translation, WHY? Because no one can shorten FROM/OF the salat, therefore it is better to omit in the translation so there are no questions raised.

            The translators studied hadith before translating the Quran therefore they validate the nonsense hadith by distorting the verses of the Quran.

            Then let them complete the rites prescribed for them, perform their vows, and (again) circumambulate the Ancient House." 2229

            Since the translators knew through hadith that tawaff was done of kaaba, they tried to validate that nonsense by distorting the meaning of BI L BAYT. It is not BAYT but BI L BAYT. Literally it should be WITH/BY/FOR/IN/AT BAYT. But as tawaf cannot be done WITH/BY/FOR/IN/AT the BAYT AL ATEEQ, they omitted BI from their translation and the readers who have become zombies don't realize it. These translators have committed an unforgivable crime by distorting the book of Allah and astraying the believers.

            Thanks for being patient, cool, calm and respectful.

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            • G Offline
              G Offline
              good_logic
              wrote on last edited by
              #19

              Peace Hafeez.

              I have given you my understanding. I repeat The "bi" is included in my translation. That is my honest opinion.

              If you read my posts I always provide you with the "Arabic version". You give your understanding ,I have given mine. Then everyone is free to choose .

              As for what others do,,you have to ask them . I cannot answer for them.

              GOD bless you.
              Peace.

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              • WakasW Offline
                WakasW Offline
                Wakas
                wrote on last edited by
                #20

                peace hk, gl,

                Perhaps I can help summarise

                gl feels he has translated "bi" which he rendered as "to do" and thinks this is fine.

                hk is saying "bi" more rightly means "by/with/for/in" and highlights various verses showing this and where Traditional translators have been inconsistent with "bi".

                Thus, it is a matter of can "bi" mean "to do" or not. gl needs to provide Quranic evidence for this.

                Personally, I think gl's translation is suspect.

                All information is correct to the best of my knowledge only and thus should not be taken as a fact. One should always seek knowledge and verify for themselves when possible: 17:36, 20:114, 35:28, 49:6, 58:11.

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                • G Offline
                  G Offline
                  good_logic
                  wrote on last edited by
                  #21

                  Peace Wakas.

                  I did say my translation and my understanding.

                  You provide him with your understanding and Qoranic evidence if you disagree.

                  Or everyone can search/ponder for their own evidence.
                  I have provided enough verses from Qoran for my understanding.

                  Please refer to my various posts about "Salat".
                  Thank you brother.
                  GOD bless you.
                  Peace.

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                  • G Offline
                    G Offline
                    good_logic
                    wrote on last edited by
                    #22

                    ...And my evidence

                    verse 31 ...Enjoined me "with" the salat..."means Enjoined me "to do " salat...

                    If I say I enjoined you " with " the shopping... It means "To do " the shopping. The arabic bi" followed by an action verb.

                    GOD bless you.
                    Peace.

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                    • G Offline
                      G Offline
                      good_logic
                      wrote on last edited by
                      #23

                      ...I meant to say followed by an action "word".Not verb.

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                      • WakasW Offline
                        WakasW Offline
                        Wakas
                        wrote on last edited by
                        #24

                        peace gl,

                        Yes, but Quran is gold standard, and you haven't cited some Quran examples yet. This shouldn't be too difficult considering "bi" is used several hundred times.

                        All information is correct to the best of my knowledge only and thus should not be taken as a fact. One should always seek knowledge and verify for themselves when possible: 17:36, 20:114, 35:28, 49:6, 58:11.

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                        • G Offline
                          G Offline
                          good_logic
                          wrote on last edited by
                          #25

                          Peace Wakas.

                          For example Here is one similar
                          321
                          Those who have rejected God's revelations, and killed the prophets unjustly, and killed those who advised/advocated...( With /to apply/to do) justice among the people, promise them ...

                          Like you say there are many and they differ in their meanings

                          GOD bless you .
                          Peace.

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