AlFathia
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Maybe but will it be the conclusion you hoping to be? Not sure. No offense by the way.
Why worry about conclusion at this time? Let us follow the first step in understanding. Once we can have correct spelling/linguistic understanding conclusion will follow and is going to be true and correct. It is called deductive logic. True premises can only lead to true conclusion.
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Why worry about conclusion at this time? Let us follow the first step in understanding. Once we can have correct spelling/linguistic understanding conclusion will follow and is going to be true and correct. It is called deductive logic. True premises can only lead to true conclusion.
Well i never said that you should worry about the conclusion.
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Besides you should be careful how you use the linguistics, one or two or few mistakes could really crack apart your research. Again no offense.
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Besides you should be careful how you use the linguistics, one or two or few mistakes could really crack apart your research. Again no offense.
My friend, all researchers are bound to mistakes and they do. There is nothing wrong with making mistakes as long one accepts these and correct when presented with evidence. This is only how truth can be found.
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My friend, all researchers are bound to mistakes and they do. There is nothing wrong with making mistakes as long one accepts these and correct when presented with evidence. This is only how truth can be found.
Of course that is true but there are people who defend their mistakes and tend to get bias. (don't know if i said that right and not saying that you are bias)
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Of course that is true but there are people who defend their mistakes and tend to get bias. (don't know if i said that right and not saying that you are bias)
Any good research should be free from all biases. Despite good honest intentions biases can still creep in. The best way to validate the results of any research is replication of the results by many. Hence, I request to let us analyze spellings of in order to determine replication while using established linguistic rules.
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Any good research should be free from all biases. Despite good honest intentions biases can still creep in. The best way to validate the results of any research is replication of the results by many. Hence, I request to let us analyze spellings of in order to determine replication while using established linguistic rules.
Well i am not sure the spelling you use is correct though.
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As for the root of AL you have to browse in Lane's and not just go by Project Root List. Only a fraction of helpful examples is found in it. Project Root List is quite poor and lacks much valuable information. It appears this is made from someone who's subjective and can't think outside of the box, as if there's a chance Quran is more misinterpreted than they can conceive.
So allah speaks of the being or the existence of someone or something.
Salam/Peace i have also checked other lexicons websites
From Al-Maany Arabic dictionary https//www.almaany.com/en/dict/ar-en//?c=Islamic
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credit
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- Allah
- name of God among Muslims and among Arabs of all faiths
- God Who has all power; powerful beyond measure; the Greatest
- God (the One and Only)
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authorized ; licensed
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concessionaire ; concessioner ; licensee
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has
- 3rd singular present of have
- own something or have it to use it
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endorsee
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Allah ; Deity ; God (the One and Only) ; the Creator ; the Lord ; the Maker (God)
From Lane's Lexicon
http//ejtaal.net/aa/img/ll/1/ll-0119.png
http//ejtaal.net/aa/img/ll/1/ll-0120.png
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And this from Lughaat-Al-Quran
A-L-He Ibn Faris writes that it basically means ?to accept someone?s subjugation?. ?? (aleha), ?? (ilaiheh), ? ? (yalah), mean ?to seek some one?s refuge in distress?. ?? (aaleha) also means ?to be surprised?. ?? (aalaha) or ?? (yaloh) ? to give refuge to someone in distress?, or ?to take someone under one?s protection?. As such ? ? means ?to live in some house peacefully?. {T}Under these circumstances, ?? (ilahun) would mean ?someone whose refuge may be sought in danger?, or ?someone who can be requested to save one from difficulties and the concept of whose loftiness surprises one?. Some think that this word has been extracted from ? ? (laha yaleeheh), which means ?to be lofty in stature and be hidden from the naked eye? {T}. Some others say that ?? (alah) ? that person became a slave? and ? ? (al-lahahu) ? he enslaved him?. From this come ?? (taleehun) or ?? (ta?beed) which mean ?to enslave?. Also from this we have ?? (ilah) which as a verb, turns into ?? (maaluhun), as ?kitab? and ?maktoob?) This way, ?? (ilah) would mean ?a being whose rules must be accepted and whose laws must be followed and obeyed?. As such, when the Pharoah told Moosa 2629If you accept someone else as your ?ilah? then I will have you imprisoned Here ?ilah? means someone who is in power. In the same manner, it is said 2543Have you wondered about the man who became subservient to his own desires(emotions)? Similarly, about God it is said 4384He is the One who is in the heights of the skiesas well as the depths of the universe Or, the one who is the ruler of the skies as well as of this world. So the word also means ?the one with power? or ?one who rules?.Since in pagan times, people worshipped the sun and the moon etc. as being powerful, therefore ?? (ilaaha) the moon, while ?? (aalaha) the sun. This way, anything which is worshipped is called ?? (ilah). Even the idols which are worshipped are called ?? (ilah). There is a school of thought that says that Allah is a static word, which has not been derived from any other word, but others say that this word was actually ?+? (al-ilah) that gradually became ?? (Allah) {T}In the noble Quran, the word ?Allah? has been used to describe the identity of Almighty. Therefore, Allah (the Ilah in the Quran) is that lofty being which is hidden from human eyes, but compared to whose Greatness human intellect and comprehension are quite disabled. He is the One who rules the entire universe and whose obedience is a must. And we can obey Him only as per His dictates which He has endowed us with through wahi (Revelation) and which is now capsuled safely in the Quran. As such, ? ? (ati-ullaha) would mean ?follow Allah?s law?. In the same way, whatever takes place in the universe, takes place according to Allah?s law. The world of meta-physics and this world too (alamamar, alamehkhalq ) are ruled by this law. These laws have been made as He wished them to be, and they work under his control and authority. This is the ? ? (sunnatul Allah), way of Allah which undergoes no changes. (The details can be seen under the heading (Sh-Y-A). The Quran is the sum of Allah?s attributes, Allah?s laws, Allah?s orders, Allah?s Tact, Allah?s guidance, etc. All His teachings have a central point which is His Oneness or "wahdaniya". That is to announce that nothing except God?s rule is Supreme in the universe.So far as His composition or form is concerned, that is beyond our grasp because we are all finite and no finite can comprehend the infinite. However, while remaining within our mental limits, we can have some idea about Him from His 99 attributes. According to the Quran, the correct Belief is that which is according to the requirements in the Quran. Those who believe in God according to their own interpretation are not Believers, as per the Quran. This is a very important point and must be clearly understood. "God worship? and ?virtuous actions? is only right, if done according to the Quran and not according to what different people, nation or religion thinking.
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Which conclusion?
Alef-Lam-Heh is a fabricated root. This word is nothing but the AL prefix on a Heh pronoun and it means "the who being like". With a Lam extra as the full root it means "the who being" or one's being or existence.
This is further indicated because allah as allahem which is not written but while grammatically correct if was a root would be and this kind of grammar reoccurs within Arabic many times.
Please share a linguistic rule that suggest a personal pronoun can be made definite by the use of definite particle "Al". Forget Classic Arabic show us an example from a modern language. A personal pronoun since it refers to a certain person or something specific is automatically definite. It doesn't require a definite article.
For example, " Manny is the he who wrote above quote" is correct, or the sentence "Manny is he who wrote above quote"?
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Please share a linguistic rule that suggest a personal pronoun can be made definite by the use of definite particle "Al". Forget Classic Arabic show us an example from a modern language. A personal pronoun since it refers to a certain person or something specific is automatically definite. It doesn't require a definite article.
For example, " Manny is the he who wrote above quote" is correct, or the sentence "Manny is he who wrote above quote"?
Sorry if i missed something important but why forget Classical Arabic?
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Sorry if i missed something important but why forget Classical Arabic?
Nothing important, most don't know Classic Arabic rules. I just wanted to highlight that it is linguistically absurd to say that a definite article is needed to make a pronoun definite. No mater, whichever language one wants to discuss.
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Nothing important, most don't know Classic Arabic rules. I just wanted to highlight that it is linguistically absurd to say that a definite article is needed to make a pronoun definite. No mater, whichever language one wants to discuss.
Well let us hear what brother Manny_E has to say.
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Why do you wait to hear from anyone. Just google search and find out if pronouns are definite or indefinite and why?
Because i have not much knowlegde of grammar. I don't know what to search. Besides the reason i want to wait it's because i want to hear Manny's response.
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Arabic works that way, you can place on to say "the he", so your example which is grammatically incorrect in English is correct in Arabic. You can't just generalize that because you speak English and an unspecified amount of languages the same way it means Arabic is spoken the same way.
If you say "it is he who" you can use in Arabic because it causes "he" to be complemented with sufficient semantics. If you instead speak of unknown or unspecified person you would say which means "it is the person who", it can be used without any word tagged because the word itself is like a subject.
The difference if you do not use is that it can be anyone person within a context who fulfill some criteria in a sentence. alone is NEVER written as an Arabic word must contain at least two letters.
Try placing "the" before every Arabic word which starts with AL and it would sound ridiculous in English.
Please do a count and tell how many total alphabets are in in the order from left to right.
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Although I'm beginning to grasp the formula of how it's spelled and why according to the grammar for . I accept I've not been utterly right. Point is, is pretty anomalous in Arabic but I'd say it is + to be honest.
So you are counting only four alphabets? Correct?
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The letters are there, four aren't they? I've written the word so many times I've lost the count and you ask an irrelevant question which is already answered in itself.
Anyone who looks can see they are four.
Great, so please tell us do see a shadda in .? What do you know a shadda implies in a given text?
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Great, so please tell us do see a shadda in .? What do you know a shadda implies in a given text?
Isn't shadda a vocalization mark? The vocal marks didn't exist until Abbasid era i think.
