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  4. Grammar Question

Grammar Question

Scheduled Pinned Locked Moved Questions/Comments on the Quran
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  • H Offline
    H Offline
    huruf
    wrote on last edited by
    #21

    Thank you NK, so his view is that Qur'an is talking about plain ants. Is that right?

    Salaam

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    • N Offline
      N Offline
      NK
      wrote on last edited by
      #22

      Yes Huruf.but I have a different view. I will share it soon. I find it difficult to fully express myself in English therefore it always takes time to compile the answer. In my opinion Namal (proper noun) was the name of the tribe and Namlah was their queen.

      Mazhar replied me and he has a similar view. He also believes that ant talks.

      Salam

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      • H Offline
        H Offline
        huruf
        wrote on last edited by
        #23

        We look forard to you posting it .

        Salaam

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        • N Offline
          N Offline
          NK
          wrote on last edited by
          #24

          Based on following points, i consider Namla as a tribe and Namlah as a queen.

          1. The verb?? has been used for??. We have seen many examples in the Quran that in-animates objects has been addressed with and . So the issue is not whether in-animate or non-rational beings can be addressed with the word and or not.

          My point is, when you address non-rational beings or in-animate objects with the word and , it always metaphorical or for presenting an example because we know the fact that they do not talk or don't have the ability to speak. It is common in every language. You can check in your own language.
          When it is addressed in this way a native speaker and listener both understand that and words are metaphorical even the events which are being described in the story are real. Unless speaker mention to the listener that the whole story is not metaphorical but has literal meaning. In the Quran it is used in the similar manner. If my point is wrong then I would like anyone to refute it with reference.

          If you agree with my above explanation then you would agree that in Surah Namal verse 18, God is not describing any metaphorical event but the events in this verse are real which make it clear that it is addressed for rational beings.

          1. Other important point is, we do not translate proper nouns. If someone name is "Muhammad" then you would not translate it to "Praise worthy". Suppose, my name is "Muhammad" then you can't call me praise worthy as Muhammad is a proper noun. Similar way "Namal" is a proper name. For whatever reason the valley was named "Namal" we would call it Valley of Namal and not valley of ants.

          2. The word is used with Tanween in this verse. If it would have been proper noun then the Arabic grammar rule is that arabic female proper names always denote as diptote, meaning there is no tanween at the end letter but in this verse the word has been used with tanween. The question is why?

          In Arabic to show someone's magnificence it is denoted in common noun. You can find many examples in the Quran. Similarly, the word is used in this verse. Her order to enter houses also lend support to the point.

          In the last, the verse context it self is very strong to point out that it was not a valley of ants because Solomon was on a military mission.

          You don't have to agree with my view point and i am open for discussion.

          Salam

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          • The_SardarT Offline
            The_SardarT Offline
            The_Sardar
            wrote on last edited by
            #25

            This video is about Arabic Grammar & Grammar in the Qur'an.

            https//www.youtube.com/watch?v=vypdeFTrnaA&t

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            • N Offline
              N Offline
              NK
              wrote on last edited by
              #26

              Sardar,

              Is it make sense what i said in my above comment?

              Salam

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              • The_SardarT Offline
                The_SardarT Offline
                The_Sardar
                wrote on last edited by
                #27

                I had some time reading your comment but i think it's good.

                Beside the Arabic Grammar system established YEARS after the Divine Revelation (Qur'an).

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                • M Offline
                  M Offline
                  Mazhar
                  wrote on last edited by
                  #28

                  I had some time reading your comment but i think it's good.

                  Beside the Arabic Grammar system established YEARS after the Divine Revelation (Qur'an).

                  Language exists before a a book is written. And language exists with grammar.

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                  • The_SardarT Offline
                    The_SardarT Offline
                    The_Sardar
                    wrote on last edited by
                    #29

                    Language exists before a a book is written. And language exists with grammar.

                    But wasn't the Arabic Grammar rules was established by a man Abū Bishr ʻAmr ibn ʻUthmān ibn Qanbar Al-Baṣrī A.K.A Sībawayhi? He authored the book know as Al-Kitāb.

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                    • I Offline
                      I Offline
                      imrankhawaja
                      wrote on last edited by
                      #30

                      Language exists before a a book is written. And language exists with grammar.

                      peace mazhar bhai,
                      languages/communications always exist its human who evolve language for their ease and make grammer by which u can make a sentence in 72 differerent forms.

                      coming back to topic with respect to QURAN , if grammer rules were already present we need atleast ONE book before quran in same language. ( Plz take time at this point)

                      so grammer need Quran, Not quran need grammer, all grammer drived from Quran.

                      God bless us All

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                      • I Offline
                        I Offline
                        imrankhawaja
                        wrote on last edited by
                        #31

                        But wasn't the Arabic Grammar rules was established by a man Abū Bishr ʻAmr ibn ʻUthmān ibn Qanbar Al-Baṣrī A.K.A Sībawayhi? He authored the book know as Al-Kitāb.

                        whoever this person is, Hez using the same principle what othe people before him used to introduce or put the things in check list manner.

                        basically the already ongoing grammer and whatever people understand from it got a collection of it he just put all collection in one organised manner.

                        anybody can do this depend on the field of person.

                        this earth give birth to Musicians, artists, chef, poets, singers, linguists, engineers everybody share the experience of their seniors and sometines they also invent their own findings to make a THING/s perfect.

                        so when somebody reach at the level of pefection they want to publish their work so other people can also look it and this process generate other fields related with our task like financial purposes to introduce a (building) to make people educate what they invent.

                        everything is serving a purpose

                        so this person is just one of them who design a thing for the people who accepts the rules and laws of grammer made by his seniors.

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                        • M Offline
                          M Offline
                          Mazhar
                          wrote on last edited by
                          #32

                          Grammar is intrinsic and inalienable element of any spoken language. Rules of grammar are formulated for non-natives and for the purpose of converting speech into writing. Grammar exists before writing a book. Qur'aan was authored keeping in view the grammar of Arabic language. Otherwise it would not have been comprehensible even by Arabs.

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