sex with the captives?

unknownuser

here is the harm

PREMARITAL SEX AND THE DYING NUCLEAR FAMILY

This paper examines the relationship between society's greater acceptance attitudes towards premarital sex since the 1960s, the breakdown of the traditional U.S nuclear family, and the rise in female-headed single parent households.

Good response Saladin ..

agentxxx

Peace zanaib,

You wrote

Is that supposed to be 'kind words' instead of 'king words' ?

Sis Thank you very much for pointing it out
This is yousaf ali`s translation of 2263 I copied from a cd ?ALIM?

KING WORDS and the covering of faults are better than charity followed by injury. Allah is free of all wants and he is Most Forbearing.

And guess what? This is yousaf ali`s translation of the same verse but from some other source.

KIND WORDS and the covering of faults are better than charity followed by injury. Allah is free of all wants, and He is Most-Forbearing.

And this is how others have translated it

PICKTHALL
A KIND WORD with forgiveness is better than almsgiving followed by injury. Allah is Absolute, Clement.

KHAN
KIND WORDS and forgiving of faults are better than Sadaqah (charity) followed by injury. And Allah is Rich (Free of all wants) and He is Most- Forbearing.

MAULANA
A KIND WORD with forgiveness is better than charity followed by injury. And Allah is Self-sufficient, Forbearing.

PICKTHAL
A KIND WORD with forgiveness is better than almsgiving followed by injury. Allah is Absolute, Clement.

RASHAD
KIND WORDS and compassion are better than a charity that is followed by insult. GOD is Rich, Clement.

SHAKIR
KIND SPEECH and forgiveness is better than charity followed by injury; and Allah is Self-sufficient, Forbearing.

SHERALI
A KIND WORD and forgiveness are better than charity followed by injury. And ALLAH is Self-Sufficient, Forbearing.

So you are absolutely right, it is ?kind words? )

peace.

unknownuser

Salaams brother agent .. and welcome. Pickthall's is undoubtedly the best. That's one of the verses I've learnt by heart.

agentxxx

peace all,

Islam Q&A (www.islam-qa.com)

Question
At the present time, is it Halal to have a sexual intercourse with your Loundi (a female prisoner of war) without getting married to her?.

Answer
Praise be to Allaah.
It is not permissible for a man to have intercourse with anyone except his wife or his female slave (concubine). A wife becomes permissible after shar?i marriage and a concubine becomes permissible to the man who owns her. She may originally be a prisoner of war, and a Muslim may obtain a concubine from the ruler or commander if he took part in fighting in jihad, or if he buys her from her owner. She becomes permissible for him by virtue of his ownership after it is established that she is not pregnant by waiting for one menstrual cycle, or until she has given birth if she is pregnant.

Allaah says (interpretation of the meaning)
?And those who guard their chastity (i.e. private parts, from illegal sexual acts)
6. Except from their wives or (the slaves) that their right hands possess, for then, they are free from blame?

It was narrated that Abu Sa?eed al-Khudri said The Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) said, concerning the prisoners of Awtaas ?Do not have intercourse with a pregnant woman until she gives birth, or with one who is not pregnant until she has menstruated once.? Narrated by Abu Dawood, 2157. This hadeeth was classed as saheeh by Shaykh al-Albaani in Irwa? al-Ghaleel, 187.

peace.

agentxxx

peace all,

Traditional Sunni viewpoints
Written by al-Khudayr (www.islam-qa.com)

Question
I've heard that it is allowed for men to have intercourse with their slaves. Does that stand for women too, & if men can have intercourse with their slaves (the ones they have bought) then why is it so much ill thought of the prostitutes...they too are, kind of bought at others will, for shorter time period perhaps. Can you make all this clear & why is it so that Islam did not stop slavery....they are humans as well, & are against their will kept in captivity & against their will may be forced into intercourse?

Answer
Praise be to Allaah.
Slavery in Islam was originally prescribed because of Kufr. If there is jihaad between the Muslims and the kuffaar, and a number of kuffaar are taken prisoner, the commander is given the choice of sharing them out, doing them a favour (by releasing them) or paying their ransom. If they are shared out as part of the booty, they become slaves, subject to the laws governing products which may be sold. But at the same time, Islam urges the freeing of slaves and makes doing so an act of expiation for numerous sins. In principle, slavery is not something that is desirable; what is encouraged in Islam is the freeing of slaves. If a woman is enslaved according to sharee?ah, it is permissible for her master to have intercourse with her. This is unlike prostitution or zinaa, which Islam has forbidden as a precaution against mixing lineages and other reasons for which it is forbidden. There is no comparison between the two, because if a slave woman becomes pregnant, the child belongs to the master and she becomes free when he dies, because she has become the mother of the master?s child (umm walad), and is subject to the same rulings as a wife. And Allaah knows best.

peace.

agentxxx

peace all,

Traditional Sunni viewpoints
Islam Q&A (www.islam-qa.com)

Question
What is a right hand servant? Do you have to be married to have one? How can you finalize it and get one and state this person as your right hand servant?.

Answer
Praise be to Allaah.
Firstly
If Allaah enables the Muslim mujahideen to defeat kaafir enemies in war, then the men may be killed, ransomed, set free without ransom or enslaved. The choice between these four options is to be made by the ruler, according to what he thinks is the best course.

With regard to the women, they become slaves and ?those whom one's right hand possesses? (described as a ?right hand servant? in the question). Male children also become slaves. The ruler shares out these slaves among the mujaahideen.

Shaykh al-Shanqeeti (may Allaah have mercy on him) said The reason why a person may be taken as a slave is his being a kaafir and waging war against Allaah and His Messenger. If Allaah enables the Muslims who are striving and sacrificing their lives and their wealth and all that Allaah has given them to make the word of Allaah supreme over the kaafirs, then He allows them to enslave the kuffaar when they capture them, unless the ruler chooses to free them or to ransom them, if that serves the interests of the Muslims.

Adwa? al-Bayaan, 3/387
Islam limited the sources of slaves which existed before the mission of the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) to just one source, namely slavery resulting from capturing prisoners from among the kuffaar.

Islam treated female slaves more kindly in their enslavement than other cultures did. Their honour was not considered to be permissible to anyone by way of prostitution, which was the fate of female prisoners of war in most cases. Rather Islam made them the property of their masters alone, and forbade anyone else to also have intercourse with them, even if that was his son. Islam made it their right to become free through a contract of manumission; it encouraged setting them free and promised reward for that. Islam made setting slaves free an obligation in the case of some kinds of expiation (kafaarah), such as the expiation for accidental killing, zihaar (a jaahili form of divorce in which a man said to his wife, ?You are to me as my mother?s back?), and breaking oaths. They received the best treatment from their masters, as was enjoined by the pure sharee?ah.

Secondly
A mujaahid does not have to be married in order to gain possession of a ?slave whom one?s right hand possesses.? None of the scholars expressed such a view.

Thirdly
If a mujaahid takes possession of a female slave or male slave, it is permissible for him to sell them. In either case ? whether one acquires a slave through battle or through purchase ? it is not permissible for a man to have intercourse with a female slave until she has had a period from which it may be ascertained that she is not pregnant. If she is pregnant then he must wait until she gives birth.

It was narrated that Ruwayfi? ibn Thaabit al-Ansaari said I heard the Messenger of Allaah (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) say on the day of Hunayn ?It is not permissible for any man who believes in Allaah and the Last Day to irrigate the crop of another else ? meaning to have intercourse with a woman who is pregnant. And it is not permissible for a man who believes in Allaah and the Last Day to have intercourse with a captured woman until he has established that she is not pregnant. And it is not permissible for a man who believes in Allaah and the Last Day to sell any booty until it has been shared out.?

Narrated by Abu Dawood, 2158; classed as hasan by Shaykh al-Albaani in Saheeh Abi Dawood, 1890.
For many reasons, including the fact that the Muslims have long since given up jihad, slavery is now very rare. This means that the Muslims must be extra cautious by examining any case in which it is claimed that someone is a slave, whether male or female.

And Allaah knows best.

peace.

agentxxx

peace all,

Traditional Sunni viewpoints
Islam Q&A (www.islam-qa.com)

Question
Few years back, I needed a slave for comfort and support and to fulfill my jobs, I was able to pay the slave what they wanted and to comfort them too on their conditions. There was a Young Lady who agreed, on our conditions. My slave was only there when I needed her a bit like part employment she came over when I needed her and went away when not needed. We made a contract that she would serve me because she agreed and I agreed with my side.
Hence, this young lady still lives in her parents home and is not marries she agreed I be her master so it gives me the rights to touch her and look at her. We spent a lot of time together and I freed her from the contracts then got married together.
The point is that we get slaves from war time, but when will that come? Here she had agreed. And look after with the same standard of mine
Is there any haram element in this situation because the master only touched someone he owned, so this cannot be zinna.
-I would like to know the equities of slaves too
-How to you own a slave and what is the sharee condition?
-Can the master and slave have bodily contact and to what extent?
-Is there an age difference limit, i.e. they both can?t be same age?
-Can this kept secret or does everyone HAVE TO know?
-What is the minimum age the master and slave can be?
-IS SLAVES ARE ONLY AVAILABLE AT WAR-TIME, , IS THERE ANOTHER WAS OF OWNING A SLAVE?
Is it true our prophet (pbuh) owned many slaves, and called one ship?

Answer
Praise be to Allaah.
Some of the questions are repeated and interconnected. We will answer them all ? in sha Allaah ? in the following points.

Firstly
What you did with the servant woman is haraam and is not permissible. A servant woman is not a slave woman whom it is permissible to touch and have intercourse with. A servant woman is free and is not permissible for you except through marriage, which is what you did, but unfortunately you did it late.
The contract that existed between you and the servant woman was a contract of employment, which was to serve you in your house. It was not a contract that permitted you to have intercourse with her. You say that she agreed that you would be her master and she let you touch her and look at her, and that you freed her from the contract, but this has no basis of validity in sharee?ah in the sense that you refer to. A free woman cannot become a slave unless she is a kaafir woman from a state that is at war with the Muslims and the Muslims have captured her. This does not apply in the case which you are asking about.

Secondly
Slaves (men and women) may be taken in the wars that take place between Muslims and kaafirs, not in wars that are fought amongst the Muslims at times of tribulation.
Islam limited the sources of slaves which existed before the mission of the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) to just one source, namely slavery resulting from capturing prisoners from among the kuffaar, including women and children.
Shaykh al-Shanqeeti (may Allaah have mercy on him) said The reason why a person may be taken as a slave is his being a kaafir and waging war against Allaah and His Messenger. If Allaah enables the Muslims who are striving and sacrificing their lives and their wealth and all that Allaah has given them to make the word of Allaah supreme over the kaafirs, then He allows them to enslave the kuffaar when they capture them, unless the ruler chooses to free them or to ransom them, if that serves the interests of the Muslims.
Adwa? al-Bayaan, 3/387

Thirdly
The mujaahideen take possession of slave women as they take possession of the spoils of war. It is permissible for the one who gains possession of male or female slaves to sell them. In both cases ? owning a slave through battle or through purchase ? it is not permissible for a man to have intercourse with a slave woman until after she has had one menstrual cycle from which it may be established that she is not pregnant. If she is pregnant, then he must wait until she has given birth.
It was narrated that Ruwayfi? ibn Thaabit al-Ansaari said I heard the Messenger of Allaah (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) say on the day of Hunayn ?It is not permissible for any man who believes in Allaah and the Last Day to irrigate the crop of another else ? meaning to have intercourse with a woman who is pregnant. And it is not permissible for a man who believes in Allaah and the Last Day to have intercourse with a captured woman until he has established that she is not pregnant. And it is not permissible for a man who believes in Allaah and the Last Day to sell any booty until it has been shared out.?
Narrated by Abu Dawood, 2158; classed as hasan by Shaykh al-Albaani in Saheeh Abi Dawood, 1890.

Fourthly
It is permissible for there to be a physical relationship between a man and his female slave just as there is between a man and his wife, unless he marries her off to someone else, in which case it is not permissible for him to have intercourse with her because it is not permissible for a woman to be in an intimate relationship with two men at the same time.

Fifthly
There are no limits with regard to the age difference between a man and his female slave, apart from the fact that it is not permissible for him to have intercourse with her until after she has become able for that.

Sixthly
The relationship between a man and his female slave should be announced publicly and not kept secret. That is because there are rulings that stem from this announcement, such as if they have children, and so as to ward off any suspicions that people who see them together may have concerning him and her.

Seventhly
The Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) owned some male and female slaves, among whom were the following

Ibn al-Qayyim said
Zayd ibn Haarithah ibn Shuraaheel, the beloved of the Messenger of Allaah (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him). He freed him and arranged his marriage to his freed slave woman Umm Ayman, and she bore him Usaamah. His other slaves include Aslam, Abu Raafi?, Thawbaan, Abu Kabshah Sulaym, Shaqraan (whose name was Saalih), Rabaah (who was Nubian), Yassaar (who was also Nubian and was killed by the ?Arniyeen); Mid?am and Kirkirah (another Nubian) ? these two were killed at Khaybar. They also included Anjashah al-Haadi and Safeenah ibn Farookh, whose real name was Mihraan, but the Messenger of Allaah (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) called him Safeenah (= ?ship?) because they used to make him carry their luggage when they traveled, so he said, ?You are a ship (anta safeenah).? Abu Haatim said that the Messenger of Allaah (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) freed him; someone else said that Umm Salamah freed him. The Prophet?s slaves also included Anasah, whose nickname was Abu Mashrah; Aflah; ?Ubayd; Tahmaan ? also known as Keesaan; Dhakwaan; Mihraan; Marwaan ? although it was said that this was another name of Tahmaan, and Allaah knows best; Hunayn; Sandar; Fudaalah (who was Yemeni); Maaboor (who was a eunuch); Waaqid; Abu Waaqid; Qassaam; Abu ?Usayb and Abu Muwayhabah.

His female slaves included Salma (Umm Raafi?); Maymoonah bint Sa?d; Khadrah; Radwa; Razeenah; Umm Dameerah; Maymoonah bint Abi ?Usayb; Maariyah and Rayhaanah.
Zaad al-Ma?aad, 1/114-116

Eighthly
It is rare nowadays to find slaves in the shar?i sense in which it is permissible to be intimate with them etc. That is because most of the Muslims have long since given up the obligation of jihad for the sake of Allaah, in addition to their position of weakness and humiliation before their kaafir enemies, so that many of the majority-Muslim nations have signed the protocol that expressly forbids slavery and strives to put an end to it, which was agreed upon in the United Nations in 1953.

Based on that we must be very careful in examining any case where people are bought and sold as slaves, and we must also beware of the misinterpretation of the word amah (pl. imaa?) (= slave woman) which some new Muslims understand to mean that enslavement takes place simply by paying the woman some money and agreeing to have intercourse with her. This is like prostitution which is now widespread in some immoral places, night clubs and telephone sex services.
We ask Allaah to help us and you to be patient with regard to matters of our religion and to protect us from falling into evil.
And Allaah knows best.

peace.

agentxxx

peace all,

Traditional Shi'a viewpoints

The following questions were kindly answered by Dr. Takim.

NOTE The following questions came from two individuals, but were combined as they both dealt with the issue of Slavery in Islam.

QUESTIONS

I would like to know why in the qur'an or hadith, slavery is not banned.
One possible argument, that the times were not appropriate, is not valid
to me because alcohol was forbidden in "one shot."

Also, what I have great difficulty understanding is why a slave master
has sexual rights on his slave girls. What about the basic human rights
of the slave girl?

Please answer with references.

ANSWERS

Slavery cannot be compared with alcohol because the former has wider
socio-economic repurcussions.

If the Qur'an had abolished slavery overnight, it would have created a large number of unemployed people in the nascent Muslim society, with no
one to take care of their plight. With the number of unemployed people,
the crime rate would possibly have increased. It is to be remembered that
Medina had also had an influx of Muhajirun (emigrants) many of whom had to be rehabilitated in the Muslim community. Other Muslims later returned from Abyssinia and many others had converted. So what the Qur'an aimed at was a gradual emancipation of slaves. That is why when you look at the Kitab al-Kaffarah in our fiqh books, when a person has to offer an expiation for deliberately missing a fast or breaking an oath, he has to initially free a slave. Moreover, freeing a slave was deemed to be a
meritorious deed.

By this measure, it can be seen the Qur'an was working towards the
emancipation of slaves. In the meantime, Islam had set measures for the
better treatment of slaves. A master was no longer allowed to mistreat
his slaves. Therefore the Qur'anic verses on slavery can be construed as
REGULATING rather than ENCOURAGING slavery.

Moreover, Islam also introduced the concept of mukataba in slavery
whereby a slave can negotiate his freedom with his master. Through such
negotiations, a slave could buy his freedom. Furthermore, a child born to
a slave girl after conjugal relationship with her master was considered
to be free from bondage.

As for the human rights of the slave girls, it is to be remembered that
Islam did not endorse the haphazard taking of slaves. Only those taken in
wars which they had fought against Muslims were allowed to be enslaved.
The slave girls were to be treated like other wives as seen in verses
like 424-5.

Iltimase du'a

Liyakatali

peace.

brook

There are a few points I feel like making.

Ayman says

IN THIS CASE, SINCE PARENTS ARE ADDRESSED (in 2433), WHAT IS MEANT BY ?MA MALKAT AYMANUKUM? IS ONE?S ADOPTED CHILDREN.

But that is unlikely since adoption of children is forbidden in Islam. Please refer to 334.

Ma malakat aiman ukum refers to a neutral gender which is applicable to both male or female.

That can also be understood from 2433, where the pronouns standing for ma malakat ayman ukum are masculine

allazeena yabtagoona'l kitaaba mim ma malakat aiman ukum fakaateb uhum in alimtum feehim hairah

Now refer to verses 236 and 7030.
In both the above verses, ?azwajihim? and ?ma malakat aymanuhum? are separated by ?aw?. Here it does not mean that ?azwajihim? and ?ma malakat aymanuhum? are two different objects. Actually, they refer to one and the same object. ?azwajihim? ARE ?ma malakat aymanuhum? i.e. ?their spouses? are ?what they rightfully possess?.

But this claim is disproved by 3350 and 3352, where ma malakat aiman in are presented as alternatives to ordinary wives rather than being one and the same with them.

In 424, the term ?ma malakat aymanukum? refers to those married women which are wives of the disbelievers .

No. That simply is out of the question because the ma malakat aiman ukum in 424 are supposed to be captives whereas the women in 6010 are free women.

The verse 424 makes unlawful to marry all married women except those married women that have come to the believers as prisoners of wars or emigrants but their husbands are non-believers.

The great reading, as Ayman calls it, can never bear the discrepancy in this claim. If 424 made unlawful to marry married women there could be no exceptions to it.

What I understand from a comparative study of 424 and 425 is that these two verses are not about marriage but different ways of proposing to women.

The word mohsanaat which appears in both verses are independent women. They are in a position to make their own decisions, so you can directly propose to them. But the ma malakat aiman ukum are under your custody, so men should propose to them through you, that is indirectly, and marry them with your permission as is indicated by fa ankehoo hunna beizne ahle hinna in 425.

To sum up, God's religion does not allow Muslims to have male or I female slaves; neither does it allow them to marry married women, no matter whether the women are slaves or free.

Peace,
Hasan Ajk?ay

agentxxx

peace hasan,

you wrote

There are a few points I feel like making.

Ayman says

IN THIS CASE, SINCE PARENTS ARE ADDRESSED (in 2433), WHAT IS MEANT BY ?MA MALKAT AYMANUKUM? IS ONE?S ADOPTED CHILDREN.

I don?t think 2433 is addressed to parents.

2433-Let those who find not the wherewithal for marriage keep themselves chaste until Allah gives them means out of His grace. And if any of your slaves ask for a deed in writing (to enable them to earn their freedom for a certain sum) give them such a deed if ye know any good in them; yea give them something yourselves out of the means which Allah has given to you. But force not your maids to prostitution when they desire chastity in order that ye may make a gain in the goods of this life. But if anyone compels them yet after such compulsion is Allah Oft-Forgiving Most Merciful (to them).

hasan-But that is unlikely since adoption of children is forbidden in Islam. Please refer to 334.

I am sorry to disagree with you, Islam doesn?t forbid us to adopt children, 334 only clarifies that the adopted children are not like genetic off springs and the only binding regarding adoption is

CALL THEM (ADOPTED SONS) BY (THE NAMES OF) THEIR FATHERS, THAT IS MORE JUST WITH ALL?H??334

335.You shall give your adopted children names that preserve their relation-ship to their genetic parents?.334

you wrote

Ma malakat aiman ukum refers to a neutral gender which is applicable to both male or female.

That can also be understood from 2433, where the pronouns standing for ma malakat ayman ukum are masculine

allazeena yabtagoona'l kitaaba mim ma malakat aiman ukum fakaateb uhum in alimtum feehim hairah

Now refer to verses 236 and 7030.
In both the above verses, ?azwajihim? and ?ma malakat aymanuhum? are separated by ?aw?. Here it does not mean that ?azwajihim? and ?ma malakat aymanuhum? are two different objects. Actually, they refer to one and the same object. ?azwajihim? ARE ?ma malakat aymanuhum? i.e. ?their spouses? are ?what they rightfully possess?.

023006
KHAN
Except from their wives OR (the captives and slaves) that their right hands possess, for then, they are free from blame;
MAULANA
Except in the presence of their mates OR those whom their right hands possess, for such surely are not blameable,
PICKTHAL
Save from their wives OR the (slaves) that their right hands possess, for then they are not blameworthy,
RASHAD
Only with their spouses, OR those who are rightfully theirs, do they have sexual relations; they are not to be blamed.
SARWAR
except with their spouses AND slave-girls. The practice of carnal relations is lawful with them.
SHAKIR
Except before their mates OR those whom their right hands possess, for they surely are not blameable,
SHERALI
Except from their wives OR what their right hands possess, for then they are not to be blamed;
YUSUFALI
Except with those joined to them in the marriage bond, OR (the captives) whom their right hands possess,- for (in their case) they are free from blame,

070030
KHAN
Except with their wives AND the (women slaves and captives) whom their right hands possess, for (then) they are not to be blamed,
MAULANA
Except in the presence of their mates OR those whom their right hands possess -- for such surely are not to be blamed,
PICKTHAL
Save with their wives AND those whom their right hands possess, for thus they are not blameworthy;
RASHAD
(They have relations) only with their spouses, OR what is legally theirs -
SARWAR
except from their wives AND slave girls, in which case they are not to be blamed,
SHAKIR
Except in the case of their wives OR those whom their right hands possess-- for these surely are not to be blamed,
SHERALI
Except from their wives AND from those whom their right hands possess; such indeed, are not to blame;
YUSUFALI
Except with their wives AND the (captives) whom their right hands possess,- for (then) they are not to be blamed,

As you can see none of the above mentioned scholars have translated ?wa? as ?are? . to them WA= and/or .Also all of them have treated ?azwajihim? and ?ma malakat aymanuhum? as two different objects.

hasan-But this claim is disproved by 3350 and 3352, where ma malakat aiman in are presented as alternatives to ordinary wives rather than being one and the same with them.

In 424, the term ?ma malakat aymanukum? refers to those married women which are wives of the disbelievers .

424-Wal muhsana_tu minan nisa_'i illa_ MA_ MALAKAT AIMA_NUKUM, kita_balla_hi 'alaikum, wa uhilla lakum ma_ wara_'a za_likum an tabtagu_ bi amwa_likum muhisinan gaira musa_fihin(a), famastamta'tum bihi minhunna fa a_tu_hunna uju_rahunna faridah(tan), wa la_ juna_ha 'alaikum fima_ tara_daitum bihi mim ba'dil faridah(ti), innalla_ha ka_na'aliman hakima_(n).

424-Also (prohibited are) women already married except those whom your right hands possess. Thus hath Allah ordained (prohibitions) against you except for these all others are lawful provided ye seek (them in marriage) with gifts from your property desiring chastity not lust. Seeing that ye derive benefit from them give them their dowers (at least) as prescribed; but if after a dower is prescribed ye agree mutually (to vary it) there is no blame on you and Allah is All-Knowing All-Wise.

Ya_ ay yuhal lazina a_manu_ iza_ ja_ akumul MUMINA_TU MUHA_JIRA_tin famtahinu_hun al la_hu alamu bi ima_nihin fa in alimtumu_hun na mumina_tin fala_ tarjiu_hun na ilal kuf fa_r la_ hun na hil lul lahum wa lahum yahil lu_na lahun wa a_tu_ hum ma_ anfa_qu_ wa la_ juna_ha alaikum an tankihu_hun na iza_ a_ taitumu_hun na uju_rahun wa la_ tumsiku bi ishamil kawa_firi was alu_ ma_ anfaqtum wal yas alu_ ma_ anfaqu_ za_likum hukmul la_h yah kumu bainakum wal la_hu alimun hakim

6010-O ye who believe! when there come to you believing women refugees examine (and test) them Allah knows best as to their Faith if ye ascertain that they are Believers then send them not back to the Unbelievers. They are not lawful (wives) for the Unbelievers nor are the (Unbelievers) lawful (husbands) for them. But pay the Unbelievers what they have spent (on their dower). And there will be no blame on you if ye marry them on payment of their dower to them. But hold not to the guardianship of unbelieving women ask for what ye have spent on their dowers and let the (Unbelievers) ask for what they have spent (on the dowers of women who come over to you). Such is the command of Allah He judges (with justice) between you and Allah is Full of Knowledge and Wisdom.

hasan

No. That simply is out of the question because the ma malakat aiman ukum in 424 are supposed to be captives whereas the women in 6010 are free women.

The Arabic for these free women 6010 is MUMINA_TU MUHA_JIRA, so you cannot link them to the women mentioned as MA_ MALAKAT AIMA_NUKUM IN 424.
6010 talks about refugee women whereas 424 talks about slaves/captive women.

hasan wrote

The verse 424 makes unlawful to marry all married women except those married women that have come to the believers as prisoners of wars or emigrants but their husbands are non-believers.

The great reading, as Ayman calls it, can never bear the discrepancy in this claim. If 424 made unlawful to marry married women there could be no exceptions to it.

What I understand from a comparative study of 424 and 425 is that these two verses are not about marriage but different ways of proposing to women.

The word mohsanaat which appears in both verses are independent women. They are in a position to make their own decisions, so you can directly propose to them. But the ma malakat aiman ukum are under your custody, so men should propose to them through you, that is indirectly, and marry them with your permission as is indicated by fa ankehoo hunna beizne ahle hinna in 425.

people were not permitted to have sex with the captives/slaves owned by someone else, but they were permitted to marry captives/slaves with the permission of their master/owner.

hasan

To sum up, God's religion does not allow Muslims to have male or I female slaves; neither does it allow them to marry married women, no matter whether the women are slaves or free.

Brother this is your opinion and I respect it but I think it was allowed in those days.

peace.

Elena

Peace

... So, if the master does not permit her to marry someone else, he can have her for himself, if she agrees.In all other societies, the consent of a slave girl was irrelevant. But the Qur'aan gave the female slave this right.

so, you say she is a slave, the master doesn't permit her to marry someone else, he is allowed by the quran/God to have her for himself, the quran/God gives her the right to agree or disagree

there's little congruity between the words 'slave, master' and 'right'

agentxxx

peace all,

(And those who guard their private parts. Except from their wives and their right hand possessions, for then, they are free from blame. But whoever seeks beyond that, then those are the transgressors.)

Means, those who protect their private parts from unlawful actions and do not do that which Allah has forbidden; fornication and homosexuality, and do not approach anyone except the wives whom Allah has made permissible for them OR THEIR RIGHT HAND POSSESSIONS FROM THE CAPTIVES. One who seeks what Allah has made permissible for him is not to be blamed and there is no sin on him. Allah says

peace.

agentxxx

peace all,

those who are reverent in their prayer, who refrain from idle talk, who are active in public welfare and who guard their private parts except with their spouses and whomever their right hands may control, since then they are free from blame. 231-6

translationr. T.B.Irving

peace.

unknownuser

Peace
so, you say she is a slave, the master doesn't permit her to marry someone else, he is allowed by the quran/God to have her for himself, the quran/God gives her the right to agree or disagree

Yes ..

there's little congruity between the words 'slave, master' and 'right'

It's that "congruity" that made it different from the general rules of slavery elsewhere.

Elena

Paz,

Peace
so, you say she is a slave, the master doesn't permit her to marry someone else, he is allowed by the quran/God to have her for himself, the quran/God gives her the right to agree or disagree

Yes ..

there's little congruity between the words 'slave, master' and 'right'

It's that "congruity" that made it different from the general rules of slavery elsewhere.

I see. The difference is that Islam/God introduced an item regarding sex.

The rest , the same, though the master was offered some rewards if he treated her fine or freed her, but just encouragement, not compulsion, the slavery continued, to not create disturbance in that delicate society.

And this looks enough for you, even you being sure it was God who decided those things.

agentxxx

peace all,

Another fatwa

Details of Fatwa

Title of Fatwa STATUS OF SLAVE WOMEN IN ISLAM

Date of Fatwa 19/ November/ 2001

Date of Reply 19/ November/ 2001

Topic Of Fatwa SLAVERY

Question of Fatwa Is it true that Islam permits Muslim men to own slave women, and permits them to have sex with them without marrying them? And that this was carried out by the Sahaba with Muhammed's approval? Surely this is in contradiction of the Quran's condemnation of Zina. Please clarify this issue...

Name of Mufti Islam Online Fatwa Committee
Content of Reply In the Name of Allah, Most Gracious, Most Merciful.

All praise and thanks are due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon His Messenger.

Dear brother in Islam, thank you very much for having confidence in us and we hope our efforts, which are purely for Allah's Sake, meet your expectations.

Given the fact of being a religion that caters for rights of every creature, Islam urges a Muslim to show good and kind treatment to anyone under his/her control; he should neither maltreat him or her nor should he subject him/her to any form of exploitation.

As regards having slave women, it happens to be a practice necessitated by the condition in which early Muslims found themselves vis-a-vis non-Muslims, as both parties engaged in wars. Slave women or Milk Al-yameen are referred to in the Qur'an as 'Those whom your right hand possess' or 'Ma Malakat Aymanukum' they are THOSE TAKEN AS CAPTIVES DURING CONQUESTS and subsequently became slaves, or those who were descendants of slaves.

Thus, it was a war custom in the past to take men and women as captives and then turn them into slaves. Islam did not initiate it, rather, it was something in practice long ago before the advent of Islam. And when Islam came, it tried to eradicate this practice, bit by bit. So it first restricted it to the reciprocal practice of war, in the sense that Muslims took war captives just as the enemies did with Muslims.

But as it aimed at putting an end to such issue, Islam laid down rules which would eventually lead to eradicating the practice. SO IT ALLOWED MUSLIMS TO HAVE INTERCOURSE WITH SLAVE WOMEN TAKEN AS CAPTIVES OF JUST AND LEGITIMATE WARS. IN SO DOING, THE WOMAN WOULD AUTOMATICALLY BECOME FREE IF SHE GOT PREGNANT. WHAT'S MORE, HER CHILD WOULD ALSO BECOME FREE.

NOT ONLY THAT, ISLAM ALSO ORDERED A MUSLIM TO TREAT THE SLAVE WOMAN IN EVERY RESPECT AS IF SHE WERE HIS WIFE. She should be well fed, clothed and given due protection. In the family environment she had the opportunity to learn about Islam and was free to accept it or reject it. She also had the opportunity to earn her freedom, for she could be ransomed.

In the light of the above-mentioned facts, and the nature of the question posed by people, it's clear that some people misunderstand THE WISDOM BEHIND THE PERMISSIBILITY OF HAVING FEMALE SLAVES and think that it is meant to unleash men's desires and give them more enjoyment. Never!That is not the point! IT IS, RATHER, MEANS OF FREEING SLAVES; AND THIS IS CLARIFIED ABOVE IN THE FACT THAT IF A MASTER GOT A FEMALE SLAVE PREGNANT, then he could neither sell her nor give her away as a present. And if he died, she would not be considered part of his property. She'd receive her freedom and her baby would also be free.

But we have to stress that this case should not be confused with that of female servants or maid, for they are free and not slaves. Therefore, it is forbidden to engage in sexual relations with them except through an Islamic marriage.

Slavery has been abolished by international conventions, and goes in line with aims and objectives of Islam, as it has called for centuries ago.

As for marrying slaves, it is something permissible under two conditions first, if one is unable to pay the dowry of a free woman. Second, if there is fear of committing adultery if one doesn't get married. This is clarified by the following verse 'And whose is not able to afford to marry free, believing women, let them marry from the believing maids whom your right hands possess'. This is for him among you who feareth to commit sin. But to have patience would be better for you'(An-Nisa 25).

This verse shows that MUSLIM MEN SHOULD abstain from illicit relations and SEEK ENJOYMENT through marriage to free women OR THROUGH THEIR FEMALE SLAVES.

In conclusion, Allah has forbidden certain types of behavior and permitted other kinds of behavior as a safeguard to the individual and to the society. ALLAH, THE BEST KNOWER, HAS FORBIDDEN FORNICATION AND ADULTERY. HOWEVER, IN THE CASE OF CAPTIVES WHOM YOUR RIGHT HANDS POSSES, IT'S SOMETHING NECESSITATED by the special circumstances which were created when the Muslims were at war.

Allah Almighty knows best.

peace.

brook

SO IT ALLOWED MUSLIMS TO HAVE INTERCOURSE WITH SLAVE WOMEN TAKEN AS CAPTIVES OF JUST AND LEGITIMATE WARS...

Disgusting and absolutely in contradiction with the Quar'anic truth that

(1)you have to set free of your war captives as soon as the war is over (474); keeping war captives as slaves is definitely against God's religion.

(2)you can not marry married women (654); for those so-called slave women are already married, they ore other men's wives.

Would those people who issued the fatwa agree that their enemies are entitled to have sexual intercourse with the fatwa-givers' wives, who are made into slaves after they happen to become war captives?

Peace,
Hasan Ak?ay

unknownuser

Paz,

I see. The difference is that Islam/God introduced an item regarding sex.

No .. this 'item' regarding sex wasn't introduced by Islam. it was introduced much earlier by the romans, persians, anglo saxons etc. and also quite recently in the 18th century onward for 250 years or more by the colonisers in North America when they'd kidnap men and women from the western coasts of Africa, put then in chains, forcibly convert their religion, make them slog on the plantations in chains under scorching heat and then rape their women in the evenings. Any slave who tried to escape would first be whipped unconscious and then have their foot cut off. The goal of Islam was to end this culture. How? Enough has already been stated in this entire thread.

agentxxx

peace hasan

you wrote

SO IT ALLOWED MUSLIMS TO HAVE INTERCOURSE WITH SLAVE WOMEN TAKEN AS CAPTIVES OF JUST AND LEGITIMATE WARS...

Disgusting and absolutely in contradiction with the Quar'anic truth that

(1)you have to set free of your war captives as soon as the war is over (474); keeping war captives as slaves is definitely against God's religion.

(2)you can not marry married women (654); for those so-called slave women are already married, they ore other men's wives.

Here are excerpts from the discussion regarding this fatwa
http//pub126.ezboard.com/fyoungmuslimsfrm8.showMessage?topicID=87.topic

(Lamka)
Great Fatwa. So Islam allows men to have slave girls and also allows them to have sex with them but does NOT allow them to enjoy it.

(Omer)
did you even read the fatwa?

(Lamka)
Brother, I have read the (what you call) FATWA. They have added (or tried to add) a lot of sugar to this bitter medicine to make it taste sweet. However, the plain and simple facts are that Islam allows men to 1) Have slave girls; 2) Create more slaves through JIHAD (!) 3) Have sex with slave women.

(Daffy)
u r right omer, i think lamka havent even read the whole topic b4 he became to conclusions.
cant u read islam is just for betterment of human beings. what did non muslims did with the muslims slaves. didnt they had sex with them (althought it was not allowed in there religion) or didnt they sell them or presented them as a gift.
read it more carefully as i am putting the conclusions here

it gave security to the slaves once the became pregnant. they were SET FREE and couldnt be sold or gifted.
the kids borned from those slaves not only freed there mothers but they were bron free.
once involved in a sexual relationship men normally dont give there mistresses away or they care more about them (therefore though humanbeings cant see this point allah can and therefore he allowed a sexual relationship so that these women can go to as less hands as possible)
i know no other religion who orders this Islam also ordered a Muslim to treat the slave woman in every respect as if she were his wife. She should be well fed, clothed and given due protection. doesnt that give enough protection, security and respect to a slave woman. forheaven sake a slave woman is one from ur enemies a prisoner of war.and she is a slave not a master. what do u want to make her a queen ??
huh!!!!

In the following hadiths Mo's companions tried hard to NOT get the poor girls pregnant, so they wouldn't have to set them 'free' and in stead they could keep on enjoying this islamically approved rape-game
Sahih Bukhari Volume 7, Book 62, Number 137
Narrated Abu Said Al-Khudri
We got female captives in the war booty and we used to do coitus interruptus with them. So we asked Allah's Apostle about it and he said, "Do you really do that?" repeating the question thrice, "There is no soul that is destined to exist but will come into existence, till the Day of Resurrection."

Sunan Abu-Dawud, Book 11, Number 2166
Narrated AbuSa'id al-Khudri
A man said Apostle of Allah, I have a slave-girl and I withdraw the penis from her (while having intercourse), and I dislike that she becomes pregnant. I intend (by intercourse) what the men intend by it. The Jews say that withdrawing the penis (azl) is burying the living girls on a small scale. He (the Prophet) said The Jews told a lie. If Allah intends to create it, you cannot turn it away.

(Lamka)
Double standards? ..... naaahhhh...
Disgusting? .... naaaaahhhh...
Perverted? ..... naaaahhh....
Hypocrisy? ..... naaaahhhh...
Wisdom from Allah? ..... yep

you wrote

Would those people who issued the fatwa agree that their enemies are entitled to have sexual intercourse with the fatwa-givers' wives, who are made into slaves after they happen to become war captives?

in such a scenario the victorious enemy wouldnt have to seek the approval of the fatwa givers, it would be entirely upto their own discretion.
I think realistically the fatwa givers should expect the same treatment which they support, preach and practice.

peace,
nadeem.

Elena

Hi Zainab,

The 'item' I was referring to was to give the girl the right to agree or disagree with the sex requirements of her master.

I was summarising your interpretation islam improved the status of the slaves but didn't abolished slavery to not create disturbance in that society.

That one is your interpretation of the verses that talk about slavery, isn't it?

Your explanation seems to me the same as the other explanations other people present, hard tries to justify the unjustifiable because it is, or you think it is, in the quran.

Paz,

I see. The difference is that Islam/God introduced an item regarding sex.

No .. this 'item' regarding sex wasn't introduced by Islam. it was introduced much earlier by the romans, persians, ...