Conclusive proof: THE QUR'AAN IS THE WORD OF ALLAH
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Peace Magi,
My understanding is that al kitab is the universal book. Or the/a book that makes us understand Quran, (the message). Yes i can but it is a lengthy debate that has been taken ad naeseum other places on this board. But naturally im open to suggestions. Im looking for truth, not for being right.
I think that the qur'aan (the message) makes us understand al-kitab, not the other way around
1037 This Quran could not have been produced without God, but it is to authenticate what is already present, and to give detail to the Scripture in which there is no doubt, from the Lord of the worlds.
apparently a whole lot. as nobody not even Quran aloners can get to agree on it. thus, as clear as it is to you, it is your own personal interpretation, thus my point stands. As someone else will read something else in there.
I am not a qur'aan aloner but a God aloner. The qur'aan is a unique book of guidance and it itself asks us to use our minds, reason, and knowledge and to contemplate on the signs within and without, including our bodies, the universe around us, archeological findings etc.
An im still telling you that many of these things was knowledge thousands of years before the book was revealed.
Still no concrete evidence/reference. How can you say this without any concrete evidence to back you up ? Sounds like conjecture to me !
God, ofcourse.
I agree. That was the core point of this discussion.
Were not debating the message or trueness of it. merely the words on paper, and evidence i find suspicieus regarding The Divine.
I think you are still misunderstanding me. I am not discussing the exact words on paper but the message or trueness of it. If the message was authored by Allah then it has to be true.
Big bang as a fact, is slowly falling apart, but im not concluding anything untill i see more of it. Look into the zulu tribe of africa. thousands of years ago they knew the world was round (as seen in their art), and for some strange reason, they have tablets of the weight of planetary bodies. In india, they had the power to weld better and with something more solid than we have ever seen before. Im talking about the infamed pilar that doesn rust =/
And the list goes on. Many people call this stuff, out of place artifacts/knowledge, i think the only thing out of place after having seen in the 100's of these strange things, is...that we belive we did not have these knowledges at some point before. altso in written form.References please (from where you get this information).
Also provide me concrete references from where you get the idea that the particular scientific facts I mentioned in my last post were already known at the time of revelation of the qur'aan.
Several people said when US entered vietnam (a supposedly cakewalk like Iraq) that it would be suicide. It showed to be suicide, are they prophets and Godsend too then?
They thought it might be suicide but did not state it as a FACT. If they did state it as a fact then please give me the references/evidence.
By misquoting I meant you saying that I did something whereas actually I didn't. Accuse might have been a better word than misquote. For example I didn't judge you but made a conditional statement and you claimed that I judged you. The verses I quoted were applicable only IF the conditional statement was true, which I found was not true.
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peace
I am not a qur'aan aloner but a God aloner. The qur'aan is a unique book of guidance and it itself asks us to use our minds, reason, and knowledge and to contemplate on the signs within and without, including our bodies, the universe around us, archeological findings etc.
im not really sure anymore what we are debating because it would seem that at the core of things we are in 100% agreement with eachother.
Still no concrete evidence/reference. How can you say this without any concrete evidence to back you up ? Sounds like conjecture to me !
I gave you a clue brother. OUT OF PLACE/TIME ARTIFACTS!!! THere is so much data, that to say, go look in this book is ridiculous, because no collected work has been made on the subject. But you realise that youre indirectly calling me a liar. Its not my duty to show you what i have allready learned. I have showed you a direction, wich would be my responsability in this regard.
I think you are still misunderstanding me. I am not discussing the exact words on paper but the message or trueness of it. If the message was authored by Allah then it has to be true.
Hmm...Well we both agree that the message is true, and i think i have to go along with your explanation that i have it the wrong way around. However, i had the words mixed up, my understanding of it is basically the same as yours. Quran, al kitab.
My main point being. There is not a guaranteed protection of the meduim, the book, there is of what its containing. Even if perverts changed every single word in the whole scripture, any honest searchin belivever would still "get the point". With our without dubvious "evidence" from a science we know change face all the time. i mean we blame science when it disagree with us for changing all the time, but when it confirm stuff we can INTERPRETATE out of our books with out current understanding. Suddenly science is valid as evidence.
This is why im saying. TO hell with what science says if it is of no practical use for me. The evidence of the truthfullness of the message must be something else. I have experienced a drastic change in character in just months, after i released of all my idols altso the book wich i idolised myself, i nearly gave up faith. And there crawling on my knees i realised that i was completely missing the point by continously searching the book for answers. All it does is point in directions, the work is my own to do. As far as im concerned. the book we are debating regardless of name, does not contain a single answer. And yet, it is another key to every single answer you ever need to understand the things around you.
If you want to take these interpretations that we talk about, for evidence. Thats good, that would mean that its doing its thing. You think its evidence, ergo, its evidence, as its leading you to the message. For me personally its other stuff that does it, a more practical experience based approach you might call it.
Also provide me concrete references from where you get the idea that the particular scientific facts I mentioned in my last post were already known at the time of revelation of the qur'aan.
Take a look at some of Aymans articles, i find them fascinating. He ackonwledge e.g that the neabeteans was expert astrologers. If thats the case. They too would have known about the stellar bodies of movemnt, as did everybody at the time. Whole relegions is based in these planets and their paths.
They thought it might be suicide but did not state it as a FACT. If they did state it as a fact then please give me the references/evidence.
please hand me the evidence that MOhammads uncle is in hell. Here on earth such a prophecy is not worth the paper its written on obviously. And as such, purely logical thinking forbids me to acknowledge this. its either something i cannot understand entirely, the example means something else than it says, or...its not part of the message in total, and does in no way affect my salvation if i belive in it or not.
The message is perfect, but is the book? I know the book says its perfect, but so does laveys book, and i dont think thats perfect, In fact, i find his books message repulsive, regardless of the fact that it is well written, in a strong language and well articulated. Nostradamus work, altso can be said as having prophecy fullfilled,or rather so somone interpretate it to be. Is his message perfect. there isnt really any is there, but is his work technically was flawless. Leaernado da vinci etc. etc..
Many people have written books next to flawless, many have prophecised and had it come true (if you interpretate it that way). So, all we can judge on, is the message it conveys. And i think this is our only seperation in mindset.
Finally, I am humbled by my error towards you, please accept my sincere appology i had no intention of hurting your feelings.
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Peace tanveermd,
tanveermd- The scientific facts are the signs which we can use to verify and confirm THE TRUTH BEING FROM OUR LORD.
Bro what scientific facts as signs were there for those who too believed, it is a truth from our lord?
It is the code of ethics that makes quran a wonderful book and not some ambiguous verses/references. And Frankly I don?t need any confirmation regarding honesty, mercy, charity, justice, peace, tolerance, equality, love etc because I know these are the truth from our lord, no scientific facts as signs are required to believe in them.
3955- AND FOLLOW THE BEST THAT HAS BEEN REVEALED TO YOU FROM YOUR LORD before there comes to you the punishment all of a sudden while you do not even perceive;
My understanding regarding THIS BEST THAT HAS BEEN REVELED FROM OUR LORD, and which we are being told to follow, is the CODE OF ETHICS, the punishment mentioned in the verse/quran also is in reference to the violation of this code and not due to belief or disbelief in irrelevant scientific indications of quran.
tanveermd- Yes, the qur'aan is nothing but a reminder, and part of what it reminds us is to use our mind, reason, and knowledge and contemplate on the signs within and without to search for the truth.
Others have used their minds, reason, and knowledge to search for the signs and discover the truth in the universe/nature, and after they make a scientific discovery we use our mind, reason, and knowledge to associate it with some verse of quran so TO PROVE IT IS THE TRUTH FROM OUR LORD .
Today most of our intellectuals/scholars are busy preaching/debating the so-called scientific realities in quran rather then preaching the excellent code of ethics, which is the essence of quran.
Peace.
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He died a kafir rejecting Allah and his message, therefore his severe punishment is earned, this verse was revealed years before he died so he had a chance to repent even by faking it to prove the Quran is wrong and he never did despite his hatred to the message
I understand this point fully. But do you understand that i could easily point out 20 people i know wouldnt repent anything, even if their life depended on it.
For an evidence to be valid, we have to be able to confirm the outcome. If we cant, its not evidence. And as prophecy, this is weak at best.
peace
Hello
I was not confirming that it is a miracle, what i did was explaining the logical aspect of it, and I'm glad you agree on that
another point is, you can say that i will die kafir, but how you can gurantte that i will die as such if I still have 9 years to live for argument sake?
see, if I managed to believe within these 9 years then your prophecy is proven wrong,
imagine now that I hate you too, I can easily fake my believe to prove you wrong in front of everyone, i won't care about what is after death then
Salam
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Peace brother Ahmed,
You wrote
He died a kafir rejecting Allah and his message, therefore his severe punishment is earned, this verse was revealed years before he died so he had a chance to repent even by faking it to prove the Quran is wrong and he never did despite his hatred to the message
Bro I don?t understand this point that I have underlined? Below is sura111, Kindly explain?
111 1. The power of Abu Lahab will perish, and he will perish.
111 2. His wealth and gains will not exempt him.
111 3. He will be plunged in flaming Fire,
111 4. And his wife, the wood-carrier,
111 5. Will have upon her neck a halter of palm-fibre.peace.
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Peace brother Ahmed,
You wrote
He died a kafir rejecting Allah and his message, therefore his severe punishment is earned, this verse was revealed years before he died so he had a chance to repent even by faking it to prove the Quran is wrong and he never did despite his hatred to the message
Bro I don?t understand this point that I have underlined? Below is sura111, Kindly explain?
111 1. The power of Abu Lahab will perish, and he will perish.
111 2. His wealth and gains will not exempt him.
111 3. He will be plunged in flaming Fire,
111 4. And his wife, the wood-carrier,
111 5. Will have upon her neck a halter of palm-fibre.peace.
Peace brother agnetxxx
Do you belive that Mohammad had an uncle called Abu Lahab?
if you do then you do you know that he was a fierce enemy to Mohammad and the message of Allah?
he was so stypid indeed, when he used to see Mohammad talking to any one, he waits untill they finish they talk to that human after mohammad leaves and ask him what mohammad told him, and alsways contradict what Momhammad said to the people, his wife too was helping him in his deception and lies
they hurt the prophet bad, and this is when sura 111 was revealed, it condemns him and promises him with hell on the JD 'Sa Yasla Narran"
now Abu Lahab was on the hunt to contradict Mohammad in any possible way even with lies and deception
he would have came easy "for 9 years" to come and say
ok Quraish, I repent to Allah and I believe in the message and that Mohammad is the messenger of Allah
this is enough to create Fitnah because it will make that whole sura a contradiction
the ironic point is, he had about 9 years to do as such "truthfully of faking it" and he never did
that is why it will be hard to believe that a human wrote this sura before his death
salam
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Peace,
Why do people say "Abu" when the Quran mentions "Abee" Lahab? Doesn't the words also mean "father of flame"?
The surah 111 can be said about any evil person as such who had fame and wealth, thus setting a surah like it challenge, would it not?. Would that become GOD's Words then?
Lastly, here a good refutation on that verse
http//answering-islam.org.uk/Quran/Prophecy/lahab.html -
I was not confirming that it is a miracle, what i did was explaining the logical aspect of it, and I'm glad you agree on that
that part was not aimed at you as such but as much tanveermd, you know, just for the debate around the table
It all comes down to this. what do we know of Mohammads uncle that is not hearsay other than he did not belive what Mohammad belived. If there is no reliable data, we have no way of determing why he didnt do anything, and as the effect of his actions (part of the evidence) is not visible, proveable to us. Its void as anything but some sort of analogy, but i have no idea what it means. But know this, if you feel its prophecy, I have no problem with that. I admit, i have no idea what it means, it makes no sense to me, wy its even there.
peace
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Peace,
Hi
Why do people say "Abu" when the Quran mentions "Abee" Lahab?
That is due to something that is complicated in the Arabic grammar, there is something called the Five Names, these names are ?Ab, Um, Akh, Fu, Zu?
Their meanings are
- Ab -> Father
- Um -> Mother
- Akh -> Brother
- Fu -> ?Not sure what it is but I will find out later?
- Zu -> ?Owner?
When Irab is applied on these names according to their position in the sentence, sometimes they are Marfooh, Mansoob, Magroor or Maskoon
The normal vowel for Marfooh is Dummah ?oooo?
The normal vowel for Mansoob is Fatiha ?aaaaa?
The normal vowel for Magroor is Kasrah ?eeee?
There is no vowel for Maskoon
With Some of these five names we can?t apply these vowel on it rather adding an additional letter at the end or change the last letter to express the vowels, i.e.
Instead of a Dummah for ?oooo?, Ab will become Abu, by adding a Waw at the end
Instead of a Fatiha for ?aaaa?, Ab will become Aba, by adding an Alif at the end
Instead of a Kasrah for ?eeee?, Ab will become Abe, by adding a Ya at the end
In the case in sura 111, the Irab for Ab must make it have a Kasrah hence it became Abe or Abee if you like to put it this way, this proves that the Quran can?t be the work of man actually
In the way I said it in my comment ?Abu?, it actually had to be Marfooh with a Dummah, but I know I can?t put a Dummah on Ab, therefore I said it Abu with a WAW
Did you get it mister Danish?
Here is an example from the Quran for Ab with a WAW. ?Abuna?, please note the ?na? means ?our?, in the following verse and according according to the grammar Ab has to be Marfooh and that is why Allah put it with a WAW
And when he came to the water of Madyan, he found on it a group of men watering, and he found besides them two women keeping back (their flocks). He said What is the matter with you? They said We cannot water until the shepherds take away (their sheep) from the water, and our father is a very old man.
(23)
-> ? ?, ?Our Father?, and must be Marfooh with a WAW according to the grammar rules,
Here is another Quran example with Ab that must be Magroor with a Ya, and Ab that must be Mansoob with an Alif , and both are in the same very verse
So when they returned to their father, they said O our father, the measure is withheld from us, therefore send with us our brother, (so that) we may get the measure, and we will most surely guard him.
(63)
-> ? ?, ?Their Father?, and must be Magroor with a YA according to the Grammar rules, i.e. Abee or Abe
-> ??, ?Our Father?, and must be Mansoob with an ALIF according to the Grammar rules, i.e. Aba or Abaa
Abee in sura 111 must be Magroor with a Ya
Subhana Allah indeed, this Quran can't be the work of a human
Doesn't the words also mean "father of flame"?
It does literally, but the context clearly tells us that it is a name of a person, this is very known in the arab culture that they call each other as the father of something, even if that thing is not a real son, rather something that indicate a good thing or even a bad thing in the case of Abe Lahab (it must be Magroor in here), lol, the fire meant that he was a strong man within his society
The surah 111 can be said about any evil person as such who had fame and wealth, thus setting a surah like it challenge, would it not?. Would that become GOD's Words then?
Here is what the common sense should tell us
If we take sura 111 as a metaphor of an evil person that never existed, then please tell me why the wife of that evil person must be condemned as well?
Sure an eveil guy may be married to a good woman and vice verse, here is an example from the Quran
10-Allah sets forth an example to those who disbelieve the wife of Nuh and the wife of Lut they were both under two of Our righteous servants, but they acted treacherously towards them so they availed them naught against Allah, and it was said Enter both the fire with those who enter.
11- And Allah sets forth an example to those who believe the wife of Firon when she said My Lord! build for me a house with Thee in the garden and deliver me from Firon and his doing, and deliver me from the unjust people
(10)
(11)YOU HAVE NO POINT MISTER DANISH
Lastly, here a good refutation on that verse
http//answering-islam.org.uk/Quran/Prophecy/lahab.htmlHow many times I have to tell you this bro?
Ok here is one more time
I?m not interested in used by dates links you post for me to go there and read it, you want to debate me, we have to do it the way I explained before
Salam
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Peace Ahmed,
Once again, thank you for your wonderful detailed explanation.
Now, let me ask you this
Were grammatical implications apparent at the time the "original" Quran was compiled or oral sayings of Muhammad? In other words, if Muhammad said "Abu" (as the name implies), then why did MEN change it to "Abee" to become grammatically correct over alleged "GOD'S Words" whether it fits the grammatical connotations or not? Who is superior, the man-made grammar that got invented hundreds of years AFTER Muhammad died and as recent as today OR the way the original names/sayings/messages were spelled out.Is grammar above "GOD'S Words" or was GOD not capable of saying Abu instead of Abee regardless of grammatical implications, if the real name was Abu or was it really Abee?
Who invented and provoked the rules of grammar on "GOD's Words" to bring about the Quran as we see it today and why?
Lastly, have you seen and witnessed the "original" copies of Quran (biased) as written by scribes of their times displayed in the museums? If so, what grammatical rules applied then, if any, makes you 100% sure of grammatical rules applied after (hundreds of years later) or today becomes 100% GOD's Words either way, yet we find the difference in Abu and Abee? So was it GOD who changed the name pronounced from Abu to Abee or was it the invention of man-made grammar? Again, who is superior and why?
The Tashkent Quran (Uzbekistan)
The Topkapi Quran (Turkey)
The Al-Hussein Mosque Manuscript. (Egypt) -
He died a kafir rejecting Allah and his message, therefore his severe punishment is earned, this verse was revealed years before he died so he had a chance to repent even by faking it to prove the Quran is wrong and he never did despite his hatred to the message
I understand this point fully. But do you understand that i could easily point out 20 people i know wouldnt repent anything, even if their life depended on it.
For an evidence to be valid, we have to be able to confirm the outcome. If we cant, its not evidence. And as prophecy, this is weak at best.
peace
Hello
I was not confirming that it is a miracle, what i did was explaining the logical aspect of it, and I'm glad you agree on that
another point is, you can say that i will die kafir, but how you can gurantte that i will die as such if I still have 9 years to live for argument sake?
see, if I managed to believe within these 9 years then your prophecy is proven wrong,
imagine now that I hate you too, I can easily fake my believe to prove you wrong in front of everyone, i won't care about what is after death then
Salam
Peace, Ahmed,
As I understand it, your explanation goes like this
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Person X (Mohammed's uncle) disagrees with Person Y (Mohammed)
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Y predicts that X will die and go to hell unless X apologizes and proclaims agreement with Y
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X dies without ever apologizing or proclaiming agreement with Y
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Y and/or Y's followers say, "See, the prediction came true!"
Yet
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No one can prove X went to hell
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Everyone eventually dies
So nothing is proved.
Further, the following line of reasoning is not logical
"X could have easily caused the prediction to fail by falsely proclaiming agreement with Y, but X did not do so. Therefore, Y's prediction came true."
That reasoning assumes that X would be so motivated to prove Y's "prophecy" wrong that he would claim to have done the very thing he least wants to do Agree with Y.
That is illogical and its also quite a convenient prophecy for Y! Either X reverses himself and proclaims agreement with Y, thereby publicly endorsing Y's position, or X dies and Y can say the prophecy was fulfilled because X is in hell, which cannot be proven but will be believed by Y's followers who will give Y the benefit of the doubt.
You see, Y wins (at least in the eyes of his followers) either way
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If X says he changed his mind and now agrees with Y, Y would just say the prophecy was still fulfilled because now X went to heaven when he died and X's prior arguments against Y are discounted. (X can't tell anyone he was lying about his reversal or we're right back where we started.)
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If X doesn't change his ways, Y can wait 'til he dies and say the prophecy is fulfilled because X went to hell.
That would be like a Christian saying
"Unless Ahmed proclaims his conversion to Christianity and agrees completely with me, he will die and go to hell."
Well, you're not going to tell everyone you've converted to Christianity before you die just to prove that prediction wrong are you? Of course not.
If I've misunderstood the prediction or your explanation thereof please correct me, but it doesn't seem to be a prophecy at all to me. If anything, it suggests that Mohammed himself inserted this bit into the Quran to discredit his uncle with whom he had an ongoing feud.
Regards,
oneway -
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He died a kafir rejecting Allah and his message, therefore his severe punishment is earned, this verse was revealed years before he died so he had a chance to repent even by faking it to prove the Quran is wrong and he never did despite his hatred to the message
I understand this point fully. But do you understand that i could easily point out 20 people i know wouldnt repent anything, even if their life depended on it.
For an evidence to be valid, we have to be able to confirm the outcome. If we cant, its not evidence. And as prophecy, this is weak at best.
peace
Hello
I was not confirming that it is a miracle, what i did was explaining the logical aspect of it, and I'm glad you agree on that
another point is, you can say that i will die kafir, but how you can gurantte that i will die as such if I still have 9 years to live for argument sake?
see, if I managed to believe within these 9 years then your prophecy is proven wrong,
imagine now that I hate you too, I can easily fake my believe to prove you wrong in front of everyone, i won't care about what is after death then
Salam
Peace, Ahmed,
Salam oneway
As I understand it, your explanation goes like this
- Person X (Mohammed's uncle) disagrees with Person Y (Mohammed)
Yes, but not just disagreement, he and his wife were fierce enemies to Mohammad
- Y predicts that X will die and go to hell unless X apologizes and proclaims agreement with Y
X didn?t predict that anyone will die (directly), neither asked for any apologies from anyone
However, what you said above is the direct aspect of it told in the Quran that we can?t know yet (Hell), but it has indirect aspect and that is what took my note, this indirect aspect is, that he will die and never believe in the message, on the other hand we know many more fierce enemies who did believed in the message
- X dies without ever apologizing or proclaiming agreement with Y
yeh but that was not the indirect prophecy I?m talking about, he died without believing in Allah
- Y and/or Y's followers say, "See, the prediction came true!"
Y did not do that nor his followers at the time, I?m sure this was raised in the last 20 years or so, as prior to that I was not aware of it neither I knew any muslim who knew it 20 years ago
Yet
- No one can prove X went to hell
we don?t need to prove that, he died a disbeliever and that is what was proven already
- Everyone eventually dies
I agree, but not eventually everyone will die a disbeliever
So nothing is proved.
excuse me mate, I believe there is a lot that was proven
Further, the following line of reasoning is not logical
"X could have easily caused the prediction to fail by falsely proclaiming agreement with Y, but X did not do so. Therefore, Y's prediction came true."
based on the known history of X, yes this should have been quite possible to have happened
That reasoning assumes that X would be so motivated to prove Y's "prophecy" wrong that he would claim to have done the very thing he least wants to do Agree with Y.
that is what X was always doing, even to fake it top cause discord between the believers, in fact X was only living to cause discord between the believers
but the point is, that Arabs were stunned by the Arabic language in the Quran that they could not challenge it at all and part of that challenge is to prove that it talks non sense
That is illogical and its also quite a convenient prophecy for Y! Either X reverses himself and proclaims agreement with Y, thereby publicly endorsing Y's position, or X dies and Y can say the prophecy was fulfilled because X is in hell, which cannot be proven but will be believed by Y's followers who will give Y the benefit of the doubt.
when 111 was revealed it was not taken as a prophecy by most arabs, it was taken as a reply to his aggressive actions agains the prophet and his followers, this prophecy thing was only discovered 20 years ago the max, and I?m sure was never talked about 1400 years ago neither 1000 years ago
You see, Y wins (at least in the eyes of his followers) either way
- If X says he changed his mind and now agrees with Y, Y would just say the prophecy was still fulfilled because now X went to heaven when he died and X's prior arguments against Y are discounted. (X can't tell anyone he was lying about his reversal or we're right back where we started.)
But X may have died faking the belief, i.e. no one would have ever knew that he was faking it
- If X doesn't change his ways, Y can wait 'til he dies and say the prophecy is fulfilled because X went to hell.
Y never said that neither he was waiting to for the X to die, in fact I believe that Y wanted X to believe still
That would be like a Christian saying
"Unless Ahmed proclaims his conversion to Christianity and agrees completely with me, he will die and go to hell."
Well, you're not going to tell everyone you've converted to Christianity before you die just to prove that prediction wrong are you? Of course not.
If I've misunderstood the prediction or your explanation thereof please correct me, but it doesn't seem to be a prophecy at all to me. If anything, it suggests that Mohammed himself inserted this bit into the Quran to discredit his uncle with whom he had an ongoing feud.
Regards,
onewayRegards
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Further, the following line of reasoning is not logical
"X could have easily caused the prediction to fail by falsely proclaiming agreement with Y, but X did not do so. Therefore, Y's prediction came true."
based on the known history of X, yes this should have been quite possible to have happened
That reasoning assumes that X would be so motivated to prove Y's "prophecy" wrong that he would claim to have done the very thing he least wants to do Agree with Y.
that is what X was always doing, even to fake it top cause discord between the believers, in fact X was only living to cause discord between the believers
but the point is, that Arabs were stunned by the Arabic language in the Quran that they could not challenge it at all and part of that challenge is to prove that it talks non sense
That is illogical and its also quite a convenient prophecy for Y! Either X reverses himself and proclaims agreement with Y, thereby publicly endorsing Y's position, or X dies and Y can say the prophecy was fulfilled because X is in hell, which cannot be proven but will be believed by Y's followers who will give Y the benefit of the doubt.
when 111 was revealed it was not taken as a prophecy by most arabs, it was taken as a reply to his aggressive actions agains the prophet and his followers, this prophecy thing was only discovered 20 years ago the max, and I?m sure was never talked about 1400 years ago neither 1000 years ago
You see, Y wins (at least in the eyes of his followers) either way
- If X says he changed his mind and now agrees with Y, Y would just say the prophecy was still fulfilled because now X went to heaven when he died and X's prior arguments against Y are discounted. (X can't tell anyone he was lying about his reversal or we're right back where we started.)
But X may have died faking the belief, i.e. no one would have ever knew that he was faking it
Hi, Ahmed,
I think maybe my main point got a little lost in my post. It is simply this
If someone hates Mohammed and his message, they will not pretend to accept his message just because Mohammed predicts that they will never accept. This is true for two reasons
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By definition, they don't believe Mohammed's message - including his prediction - so they will not believe there is any real threat of going to hell and, therefore, they have no motive for pretending to accept.
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Pretending to accept Mohammed's message will only hurt their position and help Mohammed's, which is the last thing they want to do.
So it is perfectly logical that they would not pretend to accept the message and you cannot conclude anything from the fact that they did not do so.
Also, your reply that this story about Mohammed's uncle has only recently been viewed as a fulfilled prophecy further supports my argument. It is a third reason why Mohammed's uncle would never have considered pretending to accept Allah and Mohammed's message If he didn't consider it a prophecy in the first place, he would have had no reason to react to it in particular beyond his general rejection of Mohammed's message.
So, all of that taken with the fact that no one can prove Mohammed's uncle went to hell shows that this is about as far from a provably fulfilled prophecy as one can get.
Regards,
oneway -
Further, the following line of reasoning is not logical
"X could have easily caused the prediction to fail by falsely proclaiming agreement with Y, but X did not do so. Therefore, Y's prediction came true."
based on the known history of X, yes this should have been quite possible to have happened
That reasoning assumes that X would be so motivated to prove Y's "prophecy" wrong that he would claim to have done the very thing he least wants to do Agree with Y.
that is what X was always doing, even to fake it top cause discord between the believers, in fact X was only living to cause discord between the believers
but the point is, that Arabs were stunned by the Arabic language in the Quran that they could not challenge it at all and part of that challenge is to prove that it talks non sense
That is illogical and its also quite a convenient prophecy for Y! Either X reverses himself and proclaims agreement with Y, thereby publicly endorsing Y's position, or X dies and Y can say the prophecy was fulfilled because X is in hell, which cannot be proven but will be believed by Y's followers who will give Y the benefit of the doubt.
when 111 was revealed it was not taken as a prophecy by most arabs, it was taken as a reply to his aggressive actions agains the prophet and his followers, this prophecy thing was only discovered 20 years ago the max, and I?m sure was never talked about 1400 years ago neither 1000 years ago
You see, Y wins (at least in the eyes of his followers) either way
- If X says he changed his mind and now agrees with Y, Y would just say the prophecy was still fulfilled because now X went to heaven when he died and X's prior arguments against Y are discounted. (X can't tell anyone he was lying about his reversal or we're right back where we started.)
But X may have died faking the belief, i.e. no one would have ever knew that he was faking it
Hi, Ahmed,
I think maybe my main point got a little lost in my post. It is simply this
If someone hates Mohammed and his message, they will not pretend to accept his message just because Mohammed predicts that they will never accept. This is true for two reasons
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By definition, they don't believe Mohammed's message - including his prediction - so they will not believe there is any real threat of going to hell and, therefore, they have no motive for pretending to accept.
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Pretending to accept Mohammed's message will only hurt their position and help Mohammed's, which is the last thing they want to do.
So it is perfectly logical that they would not pretend to accept the message and you cannot conclude anything from the fact that they did not do so.
Also, your reply that this story about Mohammed's uncle has only recently been viewed as a fulfilled prophecy further supports my argument. It is a third reason why Mohammed's uncle would never have considered pretending to accept Allah and Mohammed's message If he didn't consider it a prophecy in the first place, he would have had no reason to react to it in particular beyond his general rejection of Mohammed's message.
So, all of that taken with the fact that no one can prove Mohammed's uncle went to hell shows that this is about as far from a provably fulfilled prophecy as one can get.
Regards,
onewaysalam oneway
fine bro, as i said earlier that i donlt need prophecies neither miracles to believe in the Quran, the Arabic content, superiority of language and its wisdom were more than enough to me
take care
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Peace Ahmed,
Salam Danish
Once again, thank you for your wonderful detailed explanation.
no worries, i love the arabic grammar anyway and i used you to regain the knowledge
Now, let me ask you this
Were grammatical implications apparent at the time the "original" Quran was compiled or oral sayings of Muhammad?I'm not really sure about that, but I know that the Arabs at the time were superior in the language, i studied many of their poems and even was tested in it, and i tell you I hated the old Arabs way of talks, the Quran however is far superior to the old Arabs way of talk hence it took them by great surprise and could not challenge its style, many tried by failed, another difference is this, the Quran Arabic, can?t be hated rather loved and appreciated by all Arabs even the non Muslims, very strange indeed bro, and this is not a lie as I was accused by someone as such
You have to also know that due to the surprise that took the very competent Arabic speakers, the Quran over the years was a ground for the language, grammar, and balagha, it is like we have been taught the right Arabic by the best teacher ?Allah?
In other words, if Muhammad said "Abu" (as the name implies), then why did MEN change it to "Abee" to become grammatically correct over alleged "GOD'S Words" whether it fits the grammatical connotations or not?
there is no proofs that it was changed to Abee, the ee don?t exist in the word Ab as I explained, they only required due to grammar
and btw grammar?s only reason is to make the Arabic pronunciation easy, this is as far as I know, and believe me if you substitute the wrong letters in Abee, or Abu, or Abaa, you will see that the pronunciation will become harder within each specific sentence.
Most Arabic speakers anyway talk without grammar and write without tashkil, and all the old poems are full of grammar errors, but these errors was accepted due to the balagha,
Balagha means saying the max meaning with the least words, and that is what poems are mostly based on
Who is superior, the man-made grammar that got invented hundreds of years AFTER Muhammad died and as recent as today OR the way the original names/sayings/messages were spelled out.
well I take it as the grammar was invented 100s of years after revelation, that is why the Quran is a miracle, unless they based the grammar on the Quran, which can?t be proven really
the bottom line for me is this
- Allah created all languages including the Arabic, therefore He will be the best teacher in any of these languages
- Allah knew for sure how the grammar that is created by men will be hundreds of years after revelation and He made His Quran without any grammatical error unless balagha takes over, and balagha was already in use during revelation through the poems.
Very simple because Allah is the All Knowing, now there is no indication that this word has changed by humans as you are suggesting, can you provide any proof?
Is grammar above "GOD'S Words" or was GOD not capable of saying Abu instead of Abee regardless of grammatical implications, if the real name was Abu or was it really Abee?
Allah knew what is best for the ease of pronouciation
The real name is Ab
No ?u, or ee nor aa?, this is only for pronunciations aand are required by the grammar rules we have in place
Who invented and provoked the rules of grammar on "GOD's Words" to bring about the Quran as we see it today and why?
the changes in the Quran was min and was only due to difference in accents between the different arabs tribes, THE SAME CONETXT STAYS
regarding the grammar and who invented it, not really sure, but I think more than one invented it, but as I said, the Quran may be the ground base for most of grammar rules after the surprise that chock them bad then submitting that it is the true words of Allah and He is the best teacher to teach us grammar.
Lastly, have you seen and witnessed the "original" copies of Quran (biased) as written by scribes of their times displayed in the museums?
no I haven?t but in my next trip to Egypt (this june coming), I will do that and try to take a few photos if I will be allowed
If so,
not so yet,
what grammatical rules applied then, if any, makes you 100% sure of grammatical rules applied after (hundreds of years later) or today becomes 100% GOD's Words either way, yet we find the difference in Abu and Abee?
not sure what your question is, as I believe I said my opinion regarding this point before, regarding the difference in Abu and Abee, there is no difference really, both means Father, the ease of pronunciation through grammar rules required them to be as such, but you can say it the way you want, it will still sound ok but you will just look like an ignorant as many Arabs do in their day to day talk of the language,
So was it GOD who changed the name pronounced from Abu to Abee or was it the invention of man-made grammar? Again, who is superior and why?
as far as I believe, the word in the Quran was Abee since revelation, and I showed other verses where it is also Abu and Aba, and in all location the grammar rules was perfect, now the onus on you to show us that these words was not like that when it was revealed
The Al-Hussein Mosque Manuscript. (Egypt)
Thanks and that is what I?m planning to have a look at in two months inshallah
Salam