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  1. Home
  2. Critical Examination of Islam
  3. Quranic Divinity
  4. Is this verse applicable to todays women?

Is this verse applicable to todays women?

Scheduled Pinned Locked Moved Quranic Divinity
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  • E Offline
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    Elke
    wrote on last edited by
    #41

    peace samia

    i appreciate your analysis very much.

    Others would have a much easier interpretation like a man has to spent for the woman, if not he's no good, and if she's the one that earns the money, she's no good, and her husband is not a "man"...

    .. which is still a degree better than what i often see around me here women working being the doers and having most of the responsabilities and still their men commanding them just because they are "rajl"... voodoo a new kind of slavery !

    lk

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      Samia
      wrote on last edited by
      #42

      Thanks Elke for your kind words.

      Women who are bread winners, and who are not arrogant because of that, are commended by Allah in the same verse as " (who are doing what they are supposed to do) , are

      But those who do it with arrogance and gruntingly ( ), ......
      This might lead to another heated discussion!!

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        unknownuser
        wrote on last edited by
        #43

        Peace sister samia

        please sister if you are not strong yet in Arabic, i urge you not to provide wrong information to those who lack Arabic

        Rajul which means "a man", its plural is "Rijal" as you know

        now Rijl which means "a foot" its plural is "Argul"

        did the verse say "Al Argul Qawamoon Ala Al Nissa", no it didn't, it said "Al Rigal Qawamoon Ala Al Nisa", now please look again at the plural eand you will know that the verse was talking about men

        and please sister as you said Allah does not like the arrogant women

        take care

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          Samia
          wrote on last edited by
          #44

          please sister if you are not strong yet in Arabic, i urge you not to provide wrong information to those who lack Arabic

          Thanks for the kind words!

          The root for Rijaal is (re - jeem - lam) which is also the root for "rijl leg
          Then we find that "rajil" (the name of the doer) means on foot; (rajul) means man, but both words have rijaal as plural.

          Does the above has anything to do with this

          Rajul which means "a man", its plural is "Rijal" as you know

          now Rijl which means "a foot" its plural is "Argul"

          Do you understand English?

          Did you hear of the name of the doer ( )?
          I am not going to go through the whole explanation, so if you really want to learn here and not just distribute your co-descending comments, read the thread from the beginning to know more about (another meaning for rijal is on foot). OR at least scan the word (rijaal) in the Qur'aan to see that it is also used in this sense.

          and please sister as you said Allah does not like the arrogant women

          But surely He likes the arrogant men, according to you!!

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            unknownuser
            wrote on last edited by
            #45

            Fine Sister Samia, I actually proved my point with your emotional commnet

            now I dontl get emotional, what I do I expose the deception by the ignornat using the Quran

            Rijal means men, it has nothing to do with "on foot", but thanks for the laugh, only those who knows nothing about Arabic will believe your non sense claims about the language

            now for your english question, as I said many times, I don't really care of being good in it, what ic are about is being good in Arabic and I'm so lucky that it was my native language, therefore I have no problem with the Quran unlike those who manipulate, decieve other with absolutely non sense

            now let me prove to everyone that Rijl, is totally something else than Rajul, it just happen that both words have similar letters, like "Peace" "Salam", and "Ladder", "Sillim"

            Hello All

            Here we go everyone, we will see that ?Feet? means ?Arjul?, this proves what I?m saying for almost a year now that to use the flawed root method is the weakest link to understand the Quran, and is a very wide open door for manipulations

            I will certainly cut off your hands and your feet on opposite sides, then will I crucify you all together.

            (124)

            See, ?Argul? ?Feet? is the plural of ?Rijl? ?Foot?, and it has nothing to do with the word ?Rajul? which means ?Man?

            I rest my case again

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              Samia
              wrote on last edited by
              #46

              Rijal means men, it has nothing to do with "on foot",

              Verse 2239
              fa in khiftum farijaalan aw rukbaanan "and if you fear, (then perform salaat) on foot or riding"

              Verse 2227
              wa athina fin-naasi bil- hajji ya'tuunaka rijaalan

              "and proclaim to people the debate; they will come to you on foot.."

              I rest my case.

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                unknownuser
                wrote on last edited by
                #47

                Ok public

                of course the context in the above two verse means on foot, but that is an adjective based on another word "Rijl" which just uses the same letter as "Ragul", it is totally different tashkil

                now in the above two verses we can see it was about a group of believers, i.e. a plural therefore the adjective describing them must be in a plural form as well, and this is the plural form of an adjective that means "on foot", IT HAS NOTHING TO DO WITH the word Man/Men, again this is rediculous

                in the first verse for example, it clearly says that if we fear then we do the salat on foot, or some don't prey and stay on foot to protect those who prey, a clear cut adjective, in the other verse again a clear cut adjective, when the Hajj is called people will come on foot to do it

                on the other hand you will see the Quran using the word Rigal as a name for men over 40 times

                so to mix it with another word that has the same letters is a clear cut case of ignornace

                salam

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                • WakasW Offline
                  WakasW Offline
                  Wakas
                  wrote on last edited by
                  #48

                  This issue came up elsewhere, and sister Samia referred me to this thread, hence bringing it up again.

                  peace Samia,

                  Note AQ = al quran

                  You said
                  "Because this verse contains a law, and laws are for mu'men, so Allah should have addressed mu'men, as mquran mentioned, not the whole human kind."

                  Are you implying that whenever a law is mentioned, AQ always addresses mumin?

                  You said
                  "Some of whom? If it was men, what about the remaining men who were not favoured? Are they Qawwamoun?"

                  The criteria for being qawwamoun in 434 is

                  1. God preferred/bestowed on you
                    and
                  2. spending of their money

                  So if you are a man bestowed in a position to provide and have spent of your money (for such a purpose) then you are qawwamoun.

                  I discussed this at quran434.com

                  ""...bima (with what) faddalaAllahu (God preferred) baAAdahum (some of them) AAala (over/above/on) baAAdin* (others)..." *masculine
                  This likely refers to al rijal (the men) as indicated by keeping the same suffix reference later in the sentence, i.e. its logical and contextual flow.
                  See "baAAdahum AAala baAAdin" / "some of them above others" in 2253 and 1721, and also 653 "baAAdahum bi baAAdin" / "some of them with others", for a comparison.
                  However, there are three theoretically possible interpretations of this phrase
                  with what God preferred on some (men/women) over others (men/women)
                  OR
                  with what God preferred on some (men) over others (men)
                  OR
                  with what God preferred on some (men) over others (men/women)

                  The keyword being "some". Thus, whichever way it is translated it proves the obvious, that not all men are preferred/bestowed equally, and/or not all men are preferred/bestowed more than women. Also, the term "preferred" is general, unless made specific in context, and in this case may refer to distribution of wealth, e.g. inheritance, as mentioned by similar phrasing in 432. Since spending of wealth is mentioned separately, the preference likely refers to the fact that men do not have the physical burden of pregnancy, birth and suckling, hence are in a more favourable position to work/provide, by default.
                  It should be noted that some traditional commentators interpret this phrasing to suggest men are preferred to women with respect to various things but this is completely disproven by the Arabic itself, as the masculine plural is used in the phrase. The masculine plural in Arabic either refers to an all male group or male+female group, NEVER all female group. To add to this point, the same phrasing is used for preferring some messengers to others and some prophets to others and yet The Quran repeatedly tells us not to make distinction among them. The best person according to The Quran is whoever is the most righteous/pious/God-conscious . It should also be kept in mind that each person will be judged according to how they conducted themselves with what they have been given . In other words, with privilege comes responsibility.
                  As we can see, The Quran is not stating a fixed rule, i.e. that all men are the maintainers/supporters of women, they are only so if they fulfill the criteria and it is referring to the wider duty of care/responsibility men have as mentioned above. It is conditional."

                  Interestingly, the reasoning you give is very similar, if not identical to my own, but you choose different terms for nisa/rijal.

                  You then go on to seemingly contradict yourself, because you first said
                  "Because this verse contains a law, and laws are for mu'men, so Allah should have addressed mu'men, as mquran mentioned, not the whole human kind."

                  Then said "Then the verse narrows now to include only mu'menaat because it is now going to discuss law."

                  But the actual verse of 434 does not mention muminat, this is your assumption. You will have to clarify or retract your point.

                  Thanks.

                  All information is correct to the best of my knowledge only and thus should not be taken as a fact. One should always seek knowledge and verify for themselves when possible: 17:36, 20:114, 35:28, 49:6, 58:11.

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                    Samia
                    wrote on last edited by
                    #49

                    This issue came up elsewhere, and sister Samia referred me to this thread, hence bringing it up again.

                    peace Samia,

                    Note AQ = al quran

                    You said
                    "Because this verse contains a law, and laws are for mu'men, so Allah should have addressed mu'men, as mquran mentioned, not the whole human kind."

                    Are you implying that whenever a law is mentioned, AQ always addresses mumin?

                    Salaam Wakas.
                    Thank you for bringing this up!

                    I think I did not make myself clearer and I agree with you it looks wrong. I should have explained myself better than that!
                    I was referring to the laws in the verse, where it referred to good "women" as mu'minaat (actually qantaat). But did not refer to "rijaal" who are the ones who should be modified as "mu'minuun", hence making any "man" guardian over "mu'minaat"! Which is more important to describe the giver or the receiver? Nowhere in the quraan do we see a reference to the belief of the poor and needy/receiver, or how they would react, or if this reaction requires any further steps from the giver. This is an important point in believing that these "mu'minaat" are of the "rijaal" who spend their money, not of the "nisaa'" who receive the money.

                    You said
                    "Some of whom? If it was men, what about the remaining men who were not favoured? Are they Qawwamoun?"

                    The criteria for being qawwamoun in 434 is

                    1. God preferred/bestowed on you
                      and
                    2. spending of their money

                    So if you are a man bestowed in a position to provide and have spent of your money (for such a purpose) then you are qawwamoun.

                    I discussed this at quran434.com

                    ""...bima (with what) faddalaAllahu (God preferred) baAAdahum (some of them) AAala (over/above/on) baAAdin* (others)..." *masculine
                    This likely refers to al rijal (the men) as indicated by keeping the same suffix reference later in the sentence, i.e. its logical and contextual flow.
                    See "baAAdahum AAala baAAdin" / "some of them above others" in 2253 and 1721, and also 653 "baAAdahum bi baAAdin" / "some of them with others", for a comparison.
                    However, there are three theoretically possible interpretations of this phrase
                    with what God preferred on some (men/women) over others (men/women)
                    OR
                    with what God preferred on some (men) over others (men)
                    OR
                    with what God preferred on some (men) over others (men/women)

                    The keyword being "some". Thus, whichever way it is translated it proves the obvious, that not all men are preferred/bestowed equally, and/or not all men are preferred/bestowed more than women. Also, the term "preferred" is general, unless made specific in context, and in this case may refer to distribution of wealth, e.g. inheritance, as mentioned by similar phrasing in 432. Since spending of wealth is mentioned separately, the preference likely refers to the fact that men do not have the physical burden of pregnancy, birth and suckling, hence are in a more favourable position to work/provide, by default.
                    It should be noted that some traditional commentators interpret this phrasing to suggest men are preferred to women with respect to various things but this is completely disproven by the Arabic itself, as the masculine plural is used in the phrase. The masculine plural in Arabic either refers to an all male group or male+female group, NEVER all female group. To add to this point, the same phrasing is used for preferring some messengers to others and some prophets to others and yet The Quran repeatedly tells us not to make distinction among them. The best person according to The Quran is whoever is the most righteous/pious/God-conscious . It should also be kept in mind that each person will be judged according to how they conducted themselves with what they have been given . In other words, with privilege comes responsibility.
                    As we can see, The Quran is not stating a fixed rule, i.e. that all men are the maintainers/supporters of women, they are only so if they fulfill the criteria and it is referring to the wider duty of care/responsibility men have as mentioned above. It is conditional."

                    You speak of the criteria of beeing qawwamuun, which is correct, only if "rijaal" is not men and that we are talking of a pool of people of both sexes, then we take out of it the criteria. Otherwise we will have the contradiction you are not seeing All men are guardians over all women. It should stop here, because the "criteria" for qiwama is already set being a man.Then we do not need any further criteria. Unfortunately this is what is understood in the Muslim world, and even in the Shari3a law. Spending became a second degree, and if a man is unable to spend and his wife is the bread winner, his qualification as "man" is superior to her spending, which you see as the criteria.
                    But when we look at the whole statement as taking "people" as a pool, then it becomes clearer and the contradiction disappears
                    "Breadwinners are guardians over the needy/vulnerable, unemployed for what God bestowed on them (maybe the ability to work) and for their spending".
                    Here spending becomes really the criteria among breadwinners to be guardians. It's part of them and they are able to do it. Men, in general, are not necessarily able to spend if they are unable to work.
                    Then "some" comes perfectly right. This pool of people, men or women, God bestowed the ability to work on some of them (those who got the job and so become breadwinners) over some (those who are unable/ cannot work). And so the verse goes on into narrowing and no more "people" but behaviour of those "breadwinners - spenders", not merely gendered men and women.
                    God then gives examples of these good and bad breadwinners-spenders as two women, just as He gave us examples of two women for mu'mineen and two women for kafireen.

                    Interestingly, the reasoning you give is very similar, if not identical to my own, but you choose different terms for nisa/rijal.

                    You then go on to seemingly contradict yourself, because you first said
                    "Because this verse contains a law, and laws are for mu'men, so Allah should have addressed mu'men, as mquran mentioned, not the whole human kind."

                    Then said "Then the verse narrows now to include only mu'menaat because it is now going to discuss law."

                    But the actual verse of 434 does not mention muminat, this is your assumption. You will have to clarify or retract your point.
                    Thanks

                    I stand corrected as far as the usage of "mu'minaat" is concerned. It describes them as "quaanitaat devout", an even higher degree of "mu'minaat". (description of Ibrahim 16120; Mariam 6612; women better than the wives of the prophet 665). They are therefore "mu'minaat" by default.

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                      huruf
                      wrote on last edited by
                      #50

                      b3D...b3D is a reciprocal construction, therefore 4.34 means God faddala the first element mentioned over the second and the second element over the first. That is the riyal, over the nisa' and the nisa', over the riyal, and on that count some are called to be qawwamuna and some are to keep what God kept.

                      I do not understand why this whole line of "favoured some of them over the others" when this reciprocal construction is very common in the Quran and is as far as I have verified, it is unfailingly reciprocal.

                      We have the same thing in 3.195, 4.21, 4.25 4.32, etc.

                      In 4.21 both elements are clearly male on the one side, and female on the other.

                      Is there a mistery somewhere that escapes me?

                      Salaam

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                      • WakasW Offline
                        WakasW Offline
                        Wakas
                        wrote on last edited by
                        #51

                        salaam Samia,

                        Thanks for the reply.

                        The nisa are not necessarily the receiver in this context. For example if a provider buys food, pays the electricity/gas etc the nisa are not getting any money/etc directly. One could only argue indirectly, they received something, so I do not really see this point of yours as strong or significant.

                        Secondly, you said
                        "Nowhere in the quraan do we see a reference to the belief of the poor and needy/receiver, or how they would react, or if this reaction requires any further steps from the giver."
                        However, there are verses about freeing believing slaves - this mentions the belief of the receiver of freeing.
                        Also, there is 2273 that discusses the manner the asker/receiver goes about it.

                        But to be honest, even if this point of yours stood, I do not see it as strong or significant.

                        You said
                        "All men are guardians over all women. It should stop here, because the "criteria" for qiwama is already set being a man.Then we do not need any further criteria."

                        No, it cannot stop there, because if it did it would be illogical. Simply being a man does not and cannot make one qawwamun, e.g. one could have a physical or mental disability and still be a man, and these cannot be obligated to provide. Or even if a man is ill, they cannot be obligated to provide all the time no matter what.
                        Besides, the Arabic of Quran does not stop there. You cannot chop the statement, the statement is

                        "The rijal are supporters/maintainers of the nisa with what God preferred/bestowed on some of them over others and with what they spent of their money"

                        To find fault, you MUST find fault in the complete statement, not part of it.

                        Lastly, by saying - "quaanitaat devout", an even higher degree of "mu'minaat" - you are implying whatever law is discussed in 434 it applies to an even higher degree of muminaat. Does that mean it applies to a "lower" muminaat also?

                        In any case, the crux of the discussion is this you feel that rijal/men and nisa/women in 434 would cause a contradiction, thus it must mean something else. This is a perfectly sound position, but we have to determine if there is a contradiciton or not. So, please use the whole statement, and point out what exactly is the contradiction. You may wish to use the part I quoted from quran434.com as a guide to my view.

                        All information is correct to the best of my knowledge only and thus should not be taken as a fact. One should always seek knowledge and verify for themselves when possible: 17:36, 20:114, 35:28, 49:6, 58:11.

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                          huruf
                          wrote on last edited by
                          #52

                          I agree with those who say that Nisaa' as well as riyal have meanings other than men or women. I do. I found the explanation some time ago given I think by Samia, that that is the meaning of the sura AnNisaa' it is not talking about women, but about those need of support by other members of society. That as far as I am concerned I find consistent.

                          However, in this aya, and unless anybody shows me how this b3D... b3D construction in this aya is not a reciprocal one, which I am sure it is, I think that in this aya de meaning is women and men, and to me it is obvious and plain, men, in general, are free of the cares and travails of pregnancy, childbirth and, if the mother sucles the baby, also of suckling. Women are not free of that burden, that is the males advantage. But bearing children on the other hand is the women's advantage, they are in no need of anybody to have the children, it is their advantage, therefore,(somebody has mentioned that in this thread). As awlia' of one another, men, as a category must shoulder some more work than womenother than the one entailed by motherhood in society, because otherwise it would be exploitation of women. On the other hand, women must share their capability to bear children and not hide or deprive the fathers and societyn of the knowledge of their descendancy and of their closeness to the children. That is what I understand by "hafidhat lil ghaib bi ma hafidha Allah". And that is as specific groups. In this part of the aya it is not talking about husbands and wives, but about riyal and nisaa'. It is obvious that not all women have children and not all men are able to work, but specifically what no man is going to do is get pregnant and bear. And women in general do have a burden, even if it is only, at the minimum, that of the excpectations regarding motherhood. Those are the relative advantages of each sex over the other. Other advantages, like some say strength or as some say Psychological and the rest, are individual or non fundamental if there are, and in a sense overcomable, like strength. Development of humanity has made less and less of physical strength and more and more of ability and resourcefulness, and women are not physically weaker except that strength in males and females is differently distributed.

                          The real difference and what makes of a person a man or a woman are the reproductive functions, not some hypothetical psychological make up, which by the way, the Qur'an does not sacknowledge.

                          Salaam

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                            Bender
                            wrote on last edited by
                            #53

                            However, in this aya, and unless anybody shows me how this b3D... b3D construction in this aya is not a reciprocal one, which I am sure it is, I think that in this aya de meaning is women and men, and to me it is obvious and plain, men, in general, are free of the cares and travails of pregnancy, childbirth and, if the mother sucles the baby, also of suckling. Salaam

                            Salaam huruf,

                            Can you please explain what you mean with "b3D construction"?

                            I have also a feeling that "rijaal" and "nisa" may mean something else then men and women. In some verses it looks strange to translate them as men/women. But I still have not found a satisfactory definition.

                            Salaam,
                            Bender

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                              huruf
                              wrote on last edited by
                              #54

                              Salaam, Bender,

                              I do not know if you mange at all in Arabic or not, but have patience with me, I am useless for organizing this kind of thing, as an explanation, but I will do my best. In these ayas I mention, 3.195, 4.21, 4.25 4.32, and in many others inthe Qur'an there comes this expresion which is made of two parts with a preposition in the middle. I have tried to copy it in Arabic, but I cannot, so I put it in latin alphabet and hope it helps you.

                              baukum (preposition) bain

                              3195 Their Lord answered them "I do not waste the work of any worker from among you, whether male or female, you are all as each other. For those who emigrated and were driven-out from their homes and were harmed in My cause, and they fought and were killed, I will forgive for them their sins and admit them to estates with rivers flowing beneath them." A recompense from God; and God has the best recompense.

                              bau(kum) pronoun 2nd masc plural min bain
                              each of you from (the) other.

                              4.21 And how can you take it when you have become intimate with each other, and they have taken from you a solemn covenant.

                              bau(kum) pronoun 2nd masc plural ilaa bain
                              one of you to another

                              4.25 And whoever of you cannot afford to marry the independent female believers, then from those maintained by your oaths of the believing young women. And God is more aware of your faith, some of you to each other.

                              bau(kum) pronoun 2nd masc plural min bain
                              You (are) from (one) another

                              4.32 And do not envy that which God has graced some of you over others with. For the men is a portion of what they earned, and for the women is a portion of what they earned. And ask God from His grace; God is knowledgeable in all things.

                              baa(kum) pronoun 2nd masc plural 3ala bain
                              some of you over others

                              You can look for more instances of this expression, which in grammars is also explained as meaning reciprocity. And ba3du by itself is "some" or "one", but where there is this expression it is about one to another or the ones to the others or whatever the preposition indicates.

                              Salaam

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                              • B Offline
                                B Offline
                                Bender
                                wrote on last edited by
                                #55

                                Salaam, Bender,

                                I do not know if you mange at all in Arabic or not, but have patience with me, I am useless for organizing this kind of thing, as an explanation, but I will do my best. In these ayas I mention, 3.195, 4.21, 4.25 4.32, and in many others inthe Qur'an there comes this expresion which is made of two parts with a preposition in the middle. I have tried to copy it in Arabic, but I cannot, so I put it in latin alphabet and hope it helps you.

                                baukum (preposition) bain

                                3195 Their Lord answered them "I do not waste the work of any worker from among you, whether male or female, you are all as each other. For those who emigrated and were driven-out from their homes and were harmed in My cause, and they fought and were killed, I will forgive for them their sins and admit them to estates with rivers flowing beneath them." A recompense from God; and God has the best recompense.

                                bau(kum) pronoun 2nd masc plural min bain
                                each of you from (the) other.

                                4.21 And how can you take it when you have become intimate with each other, and they have taken from you a solemn covenant.

                                bau(kum) pronoun 2nd masc plural ilaa bain
                                one of you to another

                                4.25 And whoever of you cannot afford to marry the independent female believers, then from those maintained by your oaths of the believing young women. And God is more aware of your faith, some of you to each other.

                                bau(kum) pronoun 2nd masc plural min bain
                                You (are) from (one) another

                                4.32 And do not envy that which God has graced some of you over others with. For the men is a portion of what they earned, and for the women is a portion of what they earned. And ask God from His grace; God is knowledgeable in all things.

                                baa(kum) pronoun 2nd masc plural 3ala bain
                                some of you over others

                                You can look for more instances of this expression, which in grammars is also explained as meaning reciprocity. And ba3du by itself is "some" or "one", but where there is this expression it is about one to another or the ones to the others or whatever the preposition indicates.

                                Salaam

                                You can see in 4.21 that

                                Salaam huruf,

                                Thank you very much for your explanation. I didn't notice your post earlier where you already kind of explained it. I thought "b3D" was some sort of grammar rule but it's just a transliteration of a arabic word.

                                I understand what you mean with the b3D construction and I agree with you handshake
                                Thanks )

                                Salaam,
                                Bender

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                                • WakasW Offline
                                  WakasW Offline
                                  Wakas
                                  wrote on last edited by
                                  #56

                                  salaam huruf, bender,

                                  For me, the construction of the phrase has to be identical for a valid comparison with 434 to be made.

                                  In the examples you cited, only 432 was identical and thus a valid comparison can be made in this case. Interestingly, in this case it would be illogical for it to be reciprocal, because if there are two or various groups and one is feeling injustice that they got less in inheritance, it would be illogical to say "God preferred/bestowed with it, some of you over others and others over some" because someone is getting more. If I can simplify, it is a bit like if you said in maths

                                  X > Y

                                  Then said the above also means Y > X. This would be a contradiction.

                                  Also, I just noticed that 432 says "some of YOU over others" whilst 434 says "some of THEM over others" - and the implication of this is obvious. In 432 it is referring to one pool of people (i.e. humankind, i.e. men and women), whilst 434 is referring to two groups of people, hence "THEM". This usage is a perfect fit.

                                  To imply otherwise, would require explanation.

                                  All information is correct to the best of my knowledge only and thus should not be taken as a fact. One should always seek knowledge and verify for themselves when possible: 17:36, 20:114, 35:28, 49:6, 58:11.

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                                    huruf
                                    wrote on last edited by
                                    #57

                                    salaam huruf, bender,

                                    For me, the construction of the phrase has to be identical for a valid comparison with 434 to be made.

                                    In the examples you cited, only 432 was identical and thus a valid comparison can be made in this case. Interestingly, in this case it would be illogical for it to be reciprocal, because if there are two or various groups and one is feeling injustice that they got less in inheritance, it would be illogical to say "God preferred/bestowed with it, some of you over others and others over some" because someone is getting more. If I can simplify, it is a bit like if you said in maths

                                    X > Y

                                    Then said the above also means Y > X. This would be a contradiction.

                                    Also, I just noticed that 432 says "some of YOU over others" whilst 434 says "some of THEM over others" - and the implication of this is obvious. In 432 it is referring to one pool of people (i.e. humankind, i.e. men and women), whilst 434 is referring to two groups of people, hence "THEM". This usage is a perfect fit.

                                    To imply otherwise, would require explanation.

                                    4.32 How is it speaking about inheritance? Cannot see that. Next aya starts speaking about inheritance but in the succesion of the previous ayas there is no indication to take it that it is speaking about inheritance, and the meaning is clear and sufficient without recurring to that. Do not covet what you do not have, and everybody has something else that others covet. It is the same case as the prophets. Ones are favoured overs others, but others are equally favoured over others in the sense that each has its specific mission and meaning and no distinction should be made.

                                    It says not to covet those things in which God has favored some over others. It doesn't say that a set of them, some, have been favoured abolutely more than others, so there are two classes, it says there are things in which some are favoured over others and other things in which others are favoured. One may be beautiful and deaf and another may hear very well but have a lame leg.

                                    That is what I get from the Arabic.

                                    The traslation may be different

                                    As to in this aya "YOU" and in the other "THEM", that is second person and third person, I do not see that that means anything as to the reciprocity You love each other or they love each other, does not mean two different things. In our case in question we have reciprocity within the elements of a set and in the second reciprocity between two elements, in the first case the reciprocity is between the elements of the same group, and in the second between the two elements, be they individual or groups. That works I think in all languages. It is, for instance, the expression in Qur'an as I say it is very, very common, I just quoted four cases which were in the proximity of the aya we are dealing with, but samples are all over the place.

                                    What I think nags some people because of the default setting we have when approaching this aya or because a mentality ingrained in us, is the faddala part, which I guess for some people means that necessarily somethign must be preferred to something else which is not preferred, as you assume in 4.32, but those are respective advantages, respective favour or preferences, the first have advantages over the secon, and the second have advantages over the first.

                                    Ba3D ... ba3D is always reciprocal. Bring instances where it is clearly and uncontestably not so.

                                    Y greater A is not the case, because it is different gifts within different people. So A may be greater in jumping and Y greater in running.

                                    Now look at 4.21

                                    ba3dukum ila ba3din

                                    These are clearly two elements, perfectly reciprocal, it is not the elements within a group. One elemente might want to take back what it gave. It does not matter whether it is KUM (YOU) or HUM)THEM). One set are husbands and the other set are wives.

                                    Ba3du whatever in its own is some or one from the whole, but ba3d... preposition ba3din is a reciprocal clause.

                                    Like in the sura annur the waves mounting upon each other. There is not one set of waves that stays on top, it is waves thaT come on top and then in their turn are mounted on top by other waves.

                                    Also, if in 4.34 we take this ba3d... prep. ba3din for what it is, a reciprocal clause, the whole aya makes far more sense than any other way

                                    The class men ows support to the class women because of their freedom from the burden of reproduction, and the class women owe truthfulness as to what they keep in themselves because of the capacity to do so which only they have.

                                    Then, further on the aya, it goes to dealings between the partners in a couple, but the first part does not speak about a couple, speaks about two classes.

                                    Nisaa' as females, because, in this respect, where males and females difer physically, women are in fact nisaa', since they cannot shake this burden of pregnancy and childbirth. So they fall, on that count, within the general group of nisaa' like the orphans the impaired men or otherwise burdened people of both sexes. Other than that males can be nisaa' in the wider sense, as was said before, and women riyaal.

                                    Salaam

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                                      savage_carrot
                                      wrote on last edited by
                                      #58

                                      I'm actually tending towards huruf on this one. Makes sense.

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                                        Bender
                                        wrote on last edited by
                                        #59

                                        salaam huruf, bender,

                                        For me, the construction of the phrase has to be identical for a valid comparison with 434 to be made.

                                        In the examples you cited, only 432 was identical and thus a valid comparison can be made in this case. Interestingly, in this case it would be illogical for it to be reciprocal, because if there are two or various groups and one is feeling injustice that they got less in inheritance, it would be illogical to say "God preferred/bestowed with it, some of you over others and others over some" because someone is getting more. If I can simplify, it is a bit like if you said in maths

                                        X > Y

                                        Then said the above also means Y > X. This would be a contradiction.
                                        Also, I just noticed that 432 says "some of YOU over others" whilst 434 says "some of THEM over others" - and the implication of this is obvious. In 432 it is referring to one pool of people (i.e. humankind, i.e. men and women), whilst 434 is referring to two groups of people, hence "THEM". This usage is a perfect fit.

                                        To imply otherwise, would require explanation.

                                        Salaam Wakas,

                                        I don't think this is a correct mathematical reflection.
                                        You take X and Y as the elements, while X and Y are the sets which consists of elements.
                                        note the words "ma" and "bima" in 432 and 434

                                        Huruf explains it very wel in her post.

                                        Salaam,
                                        Bender

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                                        • WakasW Offline
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                                          Wakas
                                          wrote on last edited by
                                          #60

                                          peace Huruf,

                                          As I said, the construction of the phrases should be identical in order to make a valid comparison. I do not consider constructions involving "ila" or "min" as comparable to 434.

                                          You said bring one example to the contrary of your view, yet you did not cite one comparable example to 434.

                                          I did not say the "them" and "you" point I made had to do with reciprocity. That had to do with whom is being addressed, although this may help clarify this issue also later.

                                          I took the context of 432 as inheritance as it seems to delve into this aspect specifically beginning from 432, although I would admit wealth/giving is the theme throughout in this part of the chapter. Thus, I find my deduction reasonable, perhaps not conclusive, but definitely reasonable.

                                          peace bender,
                                          I'm not sure if I get your point, please clarify.

                                          peace sc,
                                          I agree that there is reciprocity in some of the examples huruf cited, but they are not equivalent comparisons, thus they have no validity in terms of a comparison.

                                          All information is correct to the best of my knowledge only and thus should not be taken as a fact. One should always seek knowledge and verify for themselves when possible: 17:36, 20:114, 35:28, 49:6, 58:11.

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