Sex is not permitted during fasting, is masturbation as well?
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Peace the word is not secretly it is ikhtaana which means to betray oneself, as it concerns the fast. It could be talking about whether they felt as if they were betraying themselves knowning that they had been fasting or it could be referring to the fast that they were allowed to have sex but would have prohibited themselves, there by also betraying themselves(what they really wanted to do). The word doesn't mean secret anything.
Godbless,
AnwarBefore the revelation of the Quran, fasting was ordained by God and practiced, however, sex, during all of the fasting month, was prohibited. The people, however, although there was a prohibition, had sex. The Quranic verse is allowing sex during the nights of Ramadan.
Peace
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But the real question is there fast valid since they are fasting in wrong months and dates. \sorry no evidence you can find that in fatwas '(
Yes according to quran we have to make up the missed fasts so even if someone fasts in the wrong period its still rewarded (God willing)
"...Those who are ill or traveling may substitute the same number of other days. GOD wishes for you convenience, not hardship, that you may fulfill your obligations, and to glorify GOD for guiding you, and to express your appreciation." 2185
PEACE
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Before the revelation of the Quran, fasting was ordained by God and practiced, however, sex, during all of the fasting month, was prohibited. The people, however, although there was a prohibition, had sex. The Quranic verse is allowing sex during the nights of Ramadan.
Peace
It doesn't make much sense to me. If that logic was followed, we would get rid of all rules that people don't bother to follow. For a logically coherent moral system, we have to presume that rules are there for a logical purpose, and so there needs to be a darn good reason for something to change. It cannot be because God decides to be more forgiving, as that would imply he made a wrong decision previously, which is inconsistent with monotheism.
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Yes according to quran we have to make up the missed fasts so even if someone fasts in the wrong period its still rewarded (God willing)
"...Those who are ill or traveling may substitute the same number of other days. GOD wishes for you convenience, not hardship, that you may fulfill your obligations, and to glorify GOD for guiding you, and to express your appreciation." 2185
PEACE
o The whole month laugh
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Do you see any commandment in the quran to fast a whole month??I think not
PEACE
"Ramadan is the month during which the Quran was revealed, providing guidance for the people, clear teachings, and the statute book. THOSE OF YOU WHO WITNESS THIS MONTH SHALL FAST THEREIN. Those who are ill or traveling may substitute the same number of other days. GOD wishes for you convenience, not hardship, that you may fulfill your obligations, and to glorify GOD for guiding you, and to express your appreciation."
Peace
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"Ramadan is the month during which the Quran was revealed, providing guidance for the people, clear teachings, and the statute book. THOSE OF YOU WHO WITNESS THIS MONTH SHALL FAST THEREIN. Those who are ill or traveling may substitute the same number of other days. GOD wishes for you convenience, not hardship, that you may fulfill your obligations, and to glorify GOD for guiding you, and to express your appreciation."
Peace
Misinterpretation. Best to look at the arabic. Ramadan has been discussed many times. I recommend you read the post that ayman has extensively replied to showing ramadan is not a month we fast in based on the arabic.
PEACE
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Before the revelation of the Quran, fasting was ordained by God and practiced, however, sex, during all of the fasting month, was prohibited. The people, however, although there was a prohibition, had sex. The Quranic verse is allowing sex during the nights of Ramadan.
I disagree with this idea... The "shahru ramadaan" is mentioned as being the period in which the Qur'aan was revealed, and this is why the Muslims abstain it. Therefore, before the revelation of the Qur'aan, there was no commandment to abstain this period, since that would make "shahru ramadaan" about something else... Also, according to the scripture, the Arabs hadn't previously received a revelation from Allah, as in a divine law. Therefore, how would they have been instructed by Allah to "fast"?
I think there was a gapped period between the revelation of 2185 and 2187. When people heard the initial command to abstain, they probably abstained from contact with their wives. Later on, though, they were told that they could keep contact with their wives during that period... Also, I think their initial reaction may have been more than simply abstaining from sexual relations with their wives; they may have avoided their wives altogether during this period, resulting in family neglect and other marital issues. This could explain why the Qur'aan says that the men acted unjustly toward themselves...