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  4. Is the Qur'an Written in Pure Arabic? -Article

Is the Qur'an Written in Pure Arabic? -Article

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    nadeem
    wrote on last edited by
    #1

    Hi there,

    Rafiqul-Haqq and Newton demonstrate in their foundational essay that the readings given below are errors in the Quranic Arabic grammar, and provide corrected readings based upon accepted rules of Classical Arabic grammar6

    In 2177, there are actually FIVE grammatical errors
    'aaman should read tu'minuu
    'aata shoud be tu'tuu
    'aqaama should be tuqimuu
    'aata shoud be tu'tuu
    saabiriina should be saabiruuna

    The yakuun in 359 should read kana
    The muqiimiin in 4162 should read muqiimuun
    The Saabi'uuna in 569 should read Saabi'iina
    The qaribun in 756 should read qaribah
    The asbatan in 7160 should read sebtan
    The 'asarru in 213 should read 'asarra
    The 'ikhtasamuu in 2219 should read 'ikhtasamaa
    The ta'e'een in 4111 should read be ta'e'atain
    The 'eq-tatalu in 499 should read 'eqtatalata
    The 'akun in 6310 should read 'akuuna
    The ma in 915 should read man
    The haazaani in 2063 should read haazayn
    http//www.studytoanswer.net/islam/purearabic.html

    I'm a student of the Quran and it's arabic, and if someone could either confirm or refute the grammatical arguments for me with indepth explanations, I'd be most grateful.

    I'd like this to be a thread about the grammar of the quran, and do not wish to go into the relation between the quran being grammatically correct and that being proof of it divine origins.

    Nadeem

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      Samia
      wrote on last edited by
      #2

      I would call it difference between old and modern grammar. Al-Quran authenticates Sibawaih's grammar, not the other way round. If not for being devine, at least because it precedes it.

      And "Arabic" does not mean "Arabic language", but "explained, clear language". Verbs derived from the root 3 R B are still used to mean "express" or clarify. When used in Arabic linguistics, the verb "'a3raba" does not mean "translate into Arabic", for exaple, but means analyse the sentence/word/phrase so as to clarify the meaning. Same verb used to mean "express" in "express one's feelings".

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        warner
        wrote on last edited by
        #3

        Peace be with you Samia

        Can you please explain in detail the reason for this percieved errors in 2177 and if time permits explanation of few other verses quoted by Nadeem.

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          Samia
          wrote on last edited by
          #4

          Salaam warner

          What would be my "reference" to check those errors? Maybe the error is in Seibawaih's understanding of the grammar of the Quran, or maybe the Quran was revealed in the spoken language (no strict grammar) and hence it was arabic (clear, undrstandable). Read this
          http//www.free-minds.org/articles/science/language.htm

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            warner
            wrote on last edited by
            #5

            Peace Samia

            If the "corrected words" are used instead of the original words how will it change the context and the tense of the verse

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              Samia
              wrote on last edited by
              #6

              The meaning will not change. These are the kind of "errors" we use in the spoken Arabic no case ending; no dual verbs or adjectives (and sometimes no dual nouns); sound plural is commonly in the accusative/genetive , moving from the 1st person to the 3rd person...

              I never thought of this before I read Ayman's article, but I am more inclined to believe that the Quran was revealed in the spoken language, and was understood; until Sibawaih complicated everything '(

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