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  4. "Quraysh" - A Proper Noun?

"Quraysh" - A Proper Noun?

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  • T Offline
    T Offline
    thegod
    wrote on last edited by
    #2

    pazuzu wrote
    It's interesting that this word appears only once in the Reading chapter 106.

    According to tradition, "Quraysh" was the name of the prophet's clan. (A clan is made up of various families, among them the Banu Hashim ).

    Is there any historical evidence that the word is indeed a proper noun? Does it appear in the classical Arabic lexicons as a proper noun? Or could it be a common noun? If so, what is its root?

    what do u mean by "historical" "evidence"? -)

    ..if u mean recorded in history...then yes....the arabs have "quraysh" as a tribe! -)

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    • U Offline
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      unknownuser
      wrote on last edited by
      #3

      There is no such thing in arabic called proper noun

      it is called a noun and yes Quraysh is a noun

      Salam

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      • A Offline
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        arnoldyasin
        wrote on last edited by
        #4

        Peace,

        Although i do believe it is meant as a tribe name, as all names have an original meaning. The word Quraishin comes from Qarasha, meaning to cut off, curtail, earn, big fish, victorious.

        The term victorious is where probably the tribe got its name from.

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        • N Offline
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          nadeem
          wrote on last edited by
          #5

          There is no such thing in arabic called proper noun

          it is called a noun and yes Quraysh is a noun

          Salam

          Peace Brother,

          Brother Ahmad, both the books which I have of Classical arabic clearly mention there being something as "proper noun" and "common noun". To give one example, both books claim that if a word is a proper noun, then it doesn't need the 'Al-' prefix as opposed to a common noun. For example, it's "Makkatu al-muqarramatu", and not "Al-Makkatu al-muqarramatu", because makka is a proper noun and thus automatically definite. However, Kitab, which is a common noun, would be "Al-Kitabu al-karimu" not "Kitabu al-karimu".

          Please correct me if I'm wrong and reply in this thread
          http//free-minds.org/forum/index.php?topic=12841.0

          ... so that this one doesn't go off-topic.

          I'm sincerely interested in learning the nuances, unless there are none.

          Nadeem

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            unknownuser
            wrote on last edited by
            #6

            Peace Brother,

            Brother Ahmad, both the books which I have of Classical arabic clearly mention there being something as "proper noun" and "common noun". To give one example, both books claim that if a word is a proper noun, then it doesn't need the 'Al-' prefix as opposed to a common noun. For example, it's "Makkatu al-muqarramatu", and not "Al-Makkatu al-muqarramatu", because makka is a proper noun and thus automatically definite. However, Kitab, which is a common noun, would be "Al-Kitabu al-karimu" not "Kitabu al-karimu".

            Please correct me if I'm wrong and reply in this thread
            http//free-minds.org/forum/index.php?topic=12841.0

            ... so that this one doesn't go off-topic.

            I'm sincerely interested in learning the nuances, unless there are none.

            Nadeem

            Hello bro

            can I ask, are they arabic books, or english explaining arbic books?

            Salam

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              unknownuser
              wrote on last edited by
              #7

              Also bro

              the Al has nothing to do with different types of nouns as you define them

              if the noun has Al in front then it is called Ism Muaraaf, i.e. Known Noun

              if there is no Al, then the Ism is called Ism Nakirah, i.e. Unknown Noun

              Salam

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                nadeem
                wrote on last edited by
                #8

                Peace brother,

                I see where you're getting at.

                The professors who wrote the books, are english, share between them 70 years of experience teaching arabic at cambridge and oxford. I don't think that they can be dismissed 'just like that', simply because they're english. Indeed, sometimes a foreigner might know the language better than a native.

                Here are the books, I've mentioned one to you before

                An Introduction to Koranic and Classical Arabic An Elementary Grammar of the Language by Wheeler M. Thackston
                http//www.amazon.com/Introduction-Koranic-Classical-Arabic-Elementary/dp/0936347406/sr=1-1/qid=1166624899/ref=pd_bbs_sr_1/002-8333234-8704022?ie=UTF8&s=books

                Arabic Through the Qur'an (Islamic Texts Society) by Alan Jones
                http//www.amazon.com/Arabic-Through-Quran-Islamic-Society/dp/0946621683/sr=8-2/qid=1166624422/ref=pd_bbs_2/002-8333234-8704022?ie=UTF8&s=books

                Thanks for the details on grammar though -)

                From what I understand, the known-unknown noun applies only to 'common nouns', as there are none unknown 'proper nouns'.

                Nadeem

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                  unknownuser
                  wrote on last edited by
                  #9

                  Peace brother,

                  Salam bro

                  I see where you're getting at.

                  No, I don't think you see it

                  The professors who wrote the books, are english, share between them 70 years of experience teaching arabic at cambridge and oxford.

                  sorry bro, that does not mean anything to me, at the end of the day they tried to make the Arabic simple for the english people to understand it hence they tried to make it look like english for them

                  I don't think that they can be dismissed 'just like that',

                  for you yes, but for me I donlt even need to read their books, hence I will dismiss them like that

                  simply because they're english.

                  no, it is simply because I'm an Arab

                  Indeed, sometimes a foreigner might know the language better than a native.

                  I have not seen a foreigner yet who knows it better than me, but In have see arabs who know it far better than me

                  Here are the books, I've mentioned one to you before

                  Thank you bro, but I'm not interested because I'm an arab

                  Thanks for the details on grammar though -)

                  No worries

                  From what I understand, the known-unknown noun applies only to 'common nouns', as there are none unknown 'proper nouns'.

                  Nadeem

                  wrong because my name "Ahmed" is known and it does not have the AL, there are far more to the Arabic grammar than what you think mate, please donlt try and make it english because it is not

                  cheers

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                    TheNabi
                    wrote on last edited by
                    #10

                    Peace Ahmed

                    Are you a philologist?

                    Joe

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                      nadeem
                      wrote on last edited by
                      #11

                      Peace Brother,

                      I apologize if I misunderstood peace

                      I certainly agree upon, and advocate myself the notion that any superior language cannot be translated into an inferior language, without the use of simplification that ultimately results in some loss. Yet, I'm not convinced that such is the case with nouns.

                      What you call 'known' and 'unknown' are usually called 'definite' and 'indefinite', respectively.

                      A common noun might be either of the two, whilst a proper noun is semantically always definite/known.

                      You gave your own name as an example "Ahmad", and if you re-read my previous post, you'll see that I wasn't contradicting you but instead indicating that 'Ahmad' in fact had to be known/definite because it's a proper noun. 'Ahmad' is not a 'common noun', it is not the name of a thing, but a name of a person and thus a 'proper noun'.

                      Please read this definition and confirm to me that our understanding of the concepts are the same, or are we simply taking past eachother

                      A noun, or noun substantive, is a word or phrase that refers to a person, place, thing, event, substance or quality. Nouns are parts of speech and can be classified in different ways such as proper nouns (e.g. "Janet&quot versus common nouns (e.g. "girl&quot, or collective nouns (e.g. "bunch", "herd&quot. Nouns can be substituted by pronouns (e.g. "she" and "which&quot. The word noun derives from Latin nomen meaning "name" (as a noun can be considered an object, person, or concept's name).

                      Do you still think that the arabic language does not, by means of grammar, differenciate between names for people and persons, and names for objects and things?

                      Consider the phrase 'Al-kitabu al-kabiru'. If I want to say "Ahmad the great", can I simply change Kitabu with Ahmadu, making it 'Al-Ahmadu al-kabiru'. No, I'll be having to drop the definite particle Al as well since Ahmadu, as a proper noun, is already definite. I'm supposed to keep the Al when saying Kitabu, because kitabu, as a common noun, is not already definite and needs, at least in this sentence, an Al to be so.

                      As it seems, and as I've demonstrated, the arabic language and its grammar does in fact differenciate between a persons name and an objects name.

                      Since I'm write in a "This is so, and that is so"-manner, I must admit that I know very little of the language, I'm simply writing like this to be clear not cocky.

                      Speaking of cocky, don't you think it's a bit wrong of you to dismiss someone based on their ethnicity? Isn't it racism?

                      There are many foreigners in norway who beat natives in languages tests. I don't see why that doesn't apply to arabic as well.

                      Nadeem

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                        thegod
                        wrote on last edited by
                        #12

                        nadeem wrote
                        'Ahmad' is not a 'common noun', it is not the name of a thing, but a name of a person and thus a 'proper noun'.

                        ok...a proper noun does not have to be the name of a person...it can be the name of a thing as well! -)

                        kaaba, almasjid alharam...these are appellations and not mere common nouns (and yes they are not persons either) -)

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                        • WakasW Online
                          WakasW Online
                          Wakas
                          wrote on last edited by
                          #13

                          Please use the search function as this topic has been discussed before. I recall bro Ayman and I discussing the chapter's translation.

                          All information is correct to the best of my knowledge only and thus should not be taken as a fact. One should always seek knowledge and verify for themselves when possible: 17:36, 20:114, 35:28, 49:6, 58:11.

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