I was wrong about Salat
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Peace,
My error was in believing that salaat (and therefore the form fa&alatun) was the verbal noun of from 2 sallaa. Not even salaa'un is the verbal noun of form 2. Salaat is a vocabulary word that stands alone without any seeming root (either an extinct root or it is a word of foreign origin that was arabicized). The only root it could comply with is salaa which only means 'to burn or roast.' There could be a connection however it still would not change the fixed meanings of this vocabulary word. (For instance salawaat can come from the Hebrew salutaa which is a Jewish place of worship, there COULD be a connection there)
Salaat doesn't mean everything that form 2 means. These are the only possible meanings
1.The feminine version of salan (the middle of the back)
2. Having sex with a woman anally; femine of salan; (ityaanul-mara'ati fee duburihaa)
see http//www.studyquran.org/LaneLexicon/Volume4/00000445.pdf
3. Prayer, petition, supplication (addu&aa'u)
4. Asking for forgiveness (al-istighfaaru)
5. Mercy (arrahmatu)
6. Praise, eulogy and commendation
7. blessing (al-barakatu)Where as sallaa (form two) as it concerns salaatun is 'to make' salaatun or to perform it in some way.
In addition to the meanings connected to following & leading the way which are all connected to salan and the hocks of animals or people in some way.
So in that particular case where the Salat of Salih (God bless him) is mentioned it is most likely his petition, i.e. what he was asking and pleading for his people to do.
Therefore I retract my statments on Salat being from form 2 of the verb. It is said that this is the quasi verbal noun, but it is not the true verbal noun. It is most likely the quasi-verbal noun becaus sallaa (form 2) can be the performance of the noun salaat or salan (or a spin off of these nounds, being stand-alone nouns or form-one nouns.)
Godbless,
Anwar -
Peace,
"They said, 'Shuaib. Does your pleaing make you responsible for us leaving behind what our ancestors served and were devoted to, as well as our doing with our wealth whatever we want? You are the most forbearing and the most most guided!"
I put in brackets what can be validly applied to understanding but does not have a literal counterpart in the Arabic text (not counting the verb to be which we all know is understood most times in Arabic). This happens all the time between languages as what one language implies the other doesn't. I did this for your and others sake to show you how I see the Arabic and what it can imply although there is not literal counterpart. I'm sure you are familiar with this phenomenon in your study of the Quran. There are thousands of cases where the Arabic makes no sense literally to English unless you rearrange the English counterparts to the Arabic words and add in the words that Arabic implies or take out those words that English implies.
On that same subject 9219 had me stuck for awhile for similar reasons
wa maa li-ahadin &andahu min ni&matin tujzaa
This was the most backwards way of saying something (considering modern English or even Arabic thinking) that this had me stumped for some time.
It is literally 'and there is no one he has from a favor it is payed back/compensated for'
It is referring to 'the most prudent' in 9217
It means 'And for him, no-one needs to pay back any favor he has done.'
In MSA that would be phrase 'wa &andahu laa tujzaa ayu ni&matin &amalahaa li-ajli-laakhari
Godbless,
Anwar
