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  4. Verse About Hitting Women

Verse About Hitting Women

Scheduled Pinned Locked Moved Questions/Comments on the Quran
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  • U Offline
    U Offline
    unknownuser
    wrote on last edited by
    #41

    Haven?t you heard about case of such husband who beats his wife simply because she did not put salt to his expectation in the food she cooked?

    I would ask again to think why, according to Quranic instructions, when a man wants to divorce his wife he is supposed to stay close to her until finalising the divorce, but when he fears rebellion from her he is instead asked to separate beds?

    By not replying ur question am I going against ur expectations? soon you'll get angry and will show ur anger by this ------> ( brickwall) caution hitting ur ownself is as bad as hitting others.

    As for your "havn't u heard" part, I have also heard that Prophet Mohammad said if a wife refuses the husband angels curse her whole night!

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      farida
      wrote on last edited by
      #42

      By not replying ur question am I going against ur expectations? soon you'll get angry and will show ur anger by this ------> ( brickwall caution hitting ur ownself is as bad as hitting others.

      As for your "havn't u heard" part, I have also heard that Prophet Mohammad said if a wife refuses the husband angels curse her whole night!

      I have knowledge about such men who hit their wives for not putting enogh salt in their food.(the current case studies with evidence)

      However when did you hear this "I have also heard that Prophet Mohammad said if a wife refuses the husband angels curse her whole nightthat"
      And what proof do you have the Prophet Mohammad said any such thing? brickwall
      peace

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        unknownuser
        wrote on last edited by
        #43

        I have knowledge about such men who hit their wives for not putting enogh salt in their food.(the current case studies with evidence)
        peace

        you are kidding aren't you? where are you from?

        However when did you hear this "I have also heard that Prophet Mohammad said if a wife refuses the husband angels curse her whole nightthat"
        And what proof do you have the Prophet Mohammad said any such thing? brickwall

        long story, but do you want the link of that amazing hadith? and please dont use that anger showing smiley rather use this -----> ;D its better trust me!

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          farida
          wrote on last edited by
          #44

          o you are kidding aren't you? where are you from?

          I am not kidding I work with the victim of domestic violence in UK
          Domestic violence happens in every class tribe and causes of domestic violence are still being researched civilised countries are now taking notice of such abuse. However a Muslim woman always had the opportunity to challenge her husband?s loss of self control where he did not allow a cooling off period which not only gives women time to protect herself from violence and where such period is not allowed she should ask for punishment for the man who ignored it.
          I have cited a current case in reply 15 of this thread wher the wife could have asked for punishment for her husband who hits her regularly.

          long story, but do you want the link of that amazing hadith? and please dont use that anger showing smiley rather use this -----> ;D its better trust me!

          I only follow Quran and do not believe in what was said for the convenience of men by some men.
          P

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            Mahmud_H
            wrote on last edited by
            #45

            Domestic violence in the UK is mostly alcohol related, isn't it?

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              cosmicdancer
              wrote on last edited by
              #46

              Now you have studied the quran extensively IN ITS LANGUAGE to come to your conclusions, no?

              Yes

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                farida
                wrote on last edited by
                #47

                Yes

                Salaam
                Studying the language of the Qur?an is one thing, but comprehending the depth and reasons behind its commandments is another. I would suggest that you Google ?Domestic violence?; it?s within your reach and you would find lots of studies. Do a bit of reading on the causes of the cycle of violence which seems to go on and on where, somehow both man and woman get trapped in violent relationships, often connected with an urge to control. This awful and deep-rooted problem of violence against woman is rampant among all classes and all sections of society.
                Then apply Al- Nisah 34 to this issue; remember, Alcohol is not labelled as haram in the HQ we are only advised to shun it and it is considered haram by most because we are aware of its evil effect. Similarly one ayah may appear to allow the man to control a rebellious woman by force but, in fact it is, quite to the contrary, asking the man to control his temper.
                The problem rests with Muslim women who never understood the protection given to them or how they can challenge a violent man who have not allowed himself a cooling off period. This is beneficial for the man too, offering him a chance to curb his anger, thus saving him from falling into a vicious cycle of violence.
                peace

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                  cosmicdancer
                  wrote on last edited by
                  #48

                  Salaam
                  Studying the language of the Qur?an is one thing, but comprehending the depth and reasons behind its commandments is another. I would suggest that you Google ?Domestic violence?; it?s within your reach and you would find lots of studies. Do a bit of reading on the causes of the cycle of violence which seems to go on and on where, somehow both man and woman get trapped in violent relationships, often connected with an urge to control. This awful and deep-rooted problem of violence against woman is rampant among all classes and all sections of society.
                  Then apply Al- Nisah 34 to this issue; remember, Alcohol is not labelled as haram in the HQ we are only advised to shun it and it is considered haram by most because we are aware of its evil effect. Similarly one ayah may appear to allow the man to control a rebellious woman by force but, in fact it is, quite to the contrary, asking the man to control his temper.
                  The problem rests with Muslim women who never understood the protection given to them or how they can challenge a violent man who have not allowed himself a cooling off period. This is beneficial for the man too, offering him a chance to curb his anger, thus saving him from falling into a vicious cycle of violence.
                  peace

                  Is Islam is incomprehensible to most people?

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                    Mahmud_H
                    wrote on last edited by
                    #49

                    Even the simplest truths are incomprehensible to those who don't want to believe them.

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                      aqua
                      wrote on last edited by
                      #50

                      I have written an article on verse 434 of the Qur'an, a verse which has commonly been misinterpreted to justify violence against women. I have created a website to publish this article www.quranverse434.com

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                        David_Saidi
                        wrote on last edited by
                        #51

                        I have written an article on verse 434 of the Qur'an, a verse which has commonly been misinterpreted to justify violence against women. I have created a website to publish this article www.quranverse434.com

                        Peace be upon you.

                        Such a magnificent work with detailed explanation , May God always support your efforts.

                        But I want ask something

                        http//s27.postimg.org/5sogwb1xf/tak_arus.png

                        Do you really undestand this Taj al Arus's explanation?

                        1. What is your translation of in 435?

                        Hope you can clarify

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                          aqua
                          wrote on last edited by
                          #52

                          Do you really undestand this Taj al Arus's explanation?

                          It is my understanding that Taj al-Arus uses the word Da-Ra-Ba both with and without the preposition 'An in that passage to explain the definition of 'turn away / withdraw from'. This is similar to how Lane uses the word with and without the preposition in his definition.

                          1. What is your translation of in 435?

                          It would be something like, 'between them both'.

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                          • WakasW Offline
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                            Wakas
                            wrote on last edited by
                            #53

                            salaam aqua,
                            Your article suffers from multiple problems as highlighted here
                            http//free-minds.org/forum/index.php?topic=9599954.msg347142#msg347142

                            "withdraw/turn away / go away from them"
                            Requires the tashkeel of present day Arabic Quran to be incorrect
                            This alleged usage in 434 occurs in 435 with the preposition "Aan", thus making Quran seems inconsistent IF it did mean that in 434
                            No identical example of this DRB usage in Quran
                            No explanation of how the authority are notified
                            It is unclear to what extent one separates, how they can do so without being unjust etc
                            No supporting marital example in Quran
                            My view Impractical result when inserted into 4128-130 and somehow requires iAAradan to be a positive thing and potentially makes Drb/3rD similar

                            "cite them" www.Quran434.com
                            Works perfectly with the tashkeel in the present day Arabic Quran
                            Several identical examples of this DRB usage in Quran, including when humans are the direct object as in 434
                            Explains how the authority is notified by 435, and provides perfect logical/sequential coherence
                            DRB use is clear and simple to implement practically
                            581-4 provides perfect coherence in terms of marital example
                            When inserted into 4128-130 provides a complementary practical and coherent solution

                            In fact there were more issues in your article. If you begin your own thread for your article I'd be happy to highlight them for you to respond to.

                            Interestingly, in your work you do not reference www.Quran434.com where you clearly got a lot of information from.

                            All information is correct to the best of my knowledge only and thus should not be taken as a fact. One should always seek knowledge and verify for themselves when possible: 17:36, 20:114, 35:28, 49:6, 58:11.

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                              Mazhar
                              wrote on last edited by
                              #54

                              It would be something like, 'between them both'

                              From more general proposition the matter is turned to specifics. It relates only to a couple, specific husband and his wife. This husband is he who has exhaustedd all the option and has since shown the door of the bed room to his wife to live in the house. Suspension of sexual relationship associated with married life has become known to all.

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                                David_Saidi
                                wrote on last edited by
                                #55

                                It is my understanding that Taj al-Arus uses the word Da-Ra-Ba both with and without the preposition 'An in that passage to explain the definition of 'turn away / withdraw from'. This is similar to how Lane uses the word with and without the preposition in his definition.

                                Please read the image carefully and you will know it contrary with your explanation.
                                Actually Taz al Arus explanation make distinct between daraba with and withouth anhu

                                And you failed to understand what in Lane Lexicon said.

                                Your claim

                                In verse 435, the preposition 'An has been used to express the meaning of turn away 'from (you)'. However, this preposition is not required in all cases in order for Da-Ra-Ba to take the meaning of separation / turning away.

                                This is what I understand from Lane Lexicon you cited adraba or anhu adraba, it doesnt means the adraba has same usage with anhu adraba.
                                But it means the word adraba can also be combined with anhu as the word daraba.

                                Actually daraba without any preposition cannot be means turn away/abandon or etc.

                                Take example

                                3156

                                494

                                There is none in Arabic like daraba al ard or daraba sabilillah without preposition fi

                                But of course Allah know best.

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                                  aqua
                                  wrote on last edited by
                                  #56

                                  This is what I understand from Lane Lexicon you cited adraba or anhu adraba, it doesnt means the adraba has same usage with anhu adraba.
                                  But it means the word adraba can also be combined with anhu as the word daraba.

                                  Your understanding is flawed and you seem quite confused. You say 'it means the word 'Adraba can also be combined with anhu as the word daraba'. If that is true, then why on earth does it say ' adraba anhu' instead of ' daraba anhu'? Where is the logic or connection in what you are saying? I don't think there is any.

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                                    David_Saidi
                                    wrote on last edited by
                                    #57

                                    Your understanding is flawed and you seem quite confused. You say 'it means the word 'Adraba can also be combined with anhu as the word daraba'. If that is true, then why on earth does it say ' adraba anhu' instead of ' daraba anhu'? Where is the logic or connection in what you are saying? I don't think there is any.

                                    Looks like a missscommunication.

                                    Explanations withouth example is nothing.
                                    Whatever your claim is true or false it still not change the fact if Lane Lexicon doesn't provide the example of daraba as leave/abandon/separate (withouth preposition).

                                    Rather than dispute this, please give me one example only from any Classical Arab text which used daraba as abandon/separate/leave withouth anykind of prepositions.

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                                      aqua
                                      wrote on last edited by
                                      #58

                                      Rather than dispute this, please give me one example only from any Classical Arab text which used daraba as abandon/separate/leave withouth anykind of prepositions.

                                      I already have shown this the Taj al-Arus is one of the most comprehensive texts of Classical Arabic and it uses Da-Ra-Ba as 'separate/shun/leave' without the preposition. Can you show any Classical Arabic text which says that it CAN'T be used without the preposition for that meaning?

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                                        David_Saidi
                                        wrote on last edited by
                                        #59

                                        I already have shown this the Taj al-Arus is one of the most comprehensive texts of Classical Arabic and it uses Da-Ra-Ba as 'separate/shun/leave' without the preposition.

                                        In PM you claim you don't fully understand Tan al-Arus, and I already read that Taj al-Arus.
                                        Conclusion is none dictionaries backed your claims.

                                        Can you show any Classical Arabic text which says that it CAN'T be used without the preposition for that meaning?

                                        In the fact both Lane and Taj Al Arus didn't gave the example for this.
                                        My proof is some Ancient dictionaries like http//www.baheth.info/ and I never found daraba without any prepositions can be means abandon/leave/turn away.

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                                          aqua
                                          wrote on last edited by
                                          #60

                                          In PM you claim you don't fully understand Tan al-Arus, and I already read that Taj al-Arus.
                                          Conclusion is none dictionaries backed your claims.

                                          In PM I didn't say that. Arabic is not my first language, but I said that I understand the passage 'enough' with my current knowledge of Arabic. In conclusion, you are not only confused, you are also a liar.

                                          In the fact both Lane and Taj Al Arus didn't gave the example for this.

                                          A dictionary does not always give proverbial examples for every definition of a word, especially if it has already provided an example of another form of the word for that same meaning.

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