By far the most cogent and evidenced understanding can be found here
http//www.quran434.com/wife-beating-islam.html

Thanks for sharing but there seems to be a number of errors in this link you have shared. For example, one of the main arguments is that "the only times it can possibly mean a literal hit/strike is when the preposition "bi" (with/by) is used." but this is incorrect as we see in other verses such as 812"When your Lord revealed to the angels I am with you, therefore make firm those who believe. I will cast terror into the hearts of those who disbelieve. Therefore strike off their heads and strike (idrub) off every fingertip of them." there is no preposition or "bi" here but it is a literal hit/strike.

Is this an error or have I got it wrong?

Thanks!

The following is taken from Usama Hasan’s research on 434. According to him, the Quranist modernists have taken a grammatically impossible interpretation. Is his assessment of the grammar correct? Please see

“However well-intentioned, this interpretation is grammatically incorrect since it requires the preposition ‘an, which is missing from the wife-beating ayah.

The verse means “to travel with them” since daraba fi l-ard means “to travel,” e.g. Qur’an 3156 and 4101. Again, such a translation would be grammatically incorrect because the preposition fi is missing from the ayah of wife-beating.

The grammatically-incorrect translations are somewhat similar to saying in English that “beat them” means “beat it, i.e. go away” or that “hit your wife” means “hit on your wife,” i.e. to make a sexual advance, in contemporary slang.”

Any responses?