Peace,
Just wanna point out that the Egyptians they believed in something called "Merkaba"
Mer=light
Ka=mind
Ba=body
Merkaba is a word of which language??
Peace,
Just wanna point out that the Egyptians they believed in something called "Merkaba"
Mer=light
Ka=mind
Ba=body
Merkaba is a word of which language??
Hi All,
Today while browising through one of the sites, i came across the following question
"I am a 17-year old Muslimah, reverted to Islam one month back. My question to you may sound weird but my concern is genuine. I belong to a Hindu Brahmin family without any brothers. Since girls are allowed as well to perform the funeral rites of their parents in absence of any real brother, I wish to know if I shall be eligible to do so when the evil day shall beckon. My family does not know of my decision of reverting to Islam"
And the answer for this is
"Congratulations on your reversion to Islam. We cannot thank Allah sufficiently for this great bounty.
You will have to do your utmost to come up with some excuse for not attending. If need be play sick or find some excuse.
and Allah Ta'ala Knows Best"
What i dont understand is, Is religion greater than one's responsibilitry towards parents?
I agree answer is very weird one.
would you please please copy paste the url of the website?
Thanks
I never disagreed with this. But, this divorce is obviously different than the normal divorce procedure that involves both parties. This difference (statutory versus ad-hoc) warrants different treatment.
As for your challenge; I care less. To me, the usage of the Quran has precedence over dictionaries written centuries after its revelation by people who were raised in sectarian culture.
If the word AYMAN in the Quran ALLWAYS mean OATHS, (with the exception of the one in the phrase we are discussing), then I must have very good reason to translate the AYMAN in this verse differently. However, with the Quranic position against slavery being negative, I have no choice but to follow the usage of the Quran.
Your "authoritative dictionaries" are for you, my "dictionaries + critical mind + appreciating the Quranic details in its usage of words + rejecting slavery" for me.
Peace,
Edip
So it is obvious
1You have never been to bring any proof from the Holy Quran or Classical Arabic that word 'aymaan" in "maa malakat aymaanukum' means oaths.
2You have persistently avoided to explain the nature of "exceptional contract " which is concocted by you.
I feel no need to prolong this discussion any more.
Dear kshad99
Now the problem has become clear. You are responding me by just browsing my answers, without reading and understanding them. Please go back and read my ARGUMENTS for why I chose OATH not HANDS for aYMaN, the PLURAL of YaMyN. I also gave another example the difference between the meaning of singular and plural forms of the word Aya. The Quran has its own usage of words that creates extra details, and your best dictionaries are blind to them.
Again, you conveniently ignored one of the examples of distortion in the meaning of a Quranic word. What is your comment on those so-called "authenticated references" regarding the meaning of UMMY?
If you will not be able to listen the party you are debating an issue, then it is a monologue. I do not have time to aid you in continuing your monologue while pretending that it is a dialogue.
Peace,
Edip
Dear Edip
I agree it has become a "monologue" because in spite of repeatedly asking questions you are persistently evading them which is very common modus operandi of the people of your mind set.
Honestly speaking initially my impression was that you may be knowing something about Quran and classical Arabic i.e why you have presented yourself as a potential candidate for debate to Dr Zakir Naik. But I have realized I was absolutely at fault.A person who cannot interpret the meaning of this simple verse
as Judicial divorce decreed by Almighty Allah ,how can he interpret other verses of the Holy Quran.
Again I challange you
1To bring a SINGLE evidence for the meaning of "aymaan= oaths" from any classical work in this particular phrase of "maa malakat aymaanukum".
Even from the Holy Quran bring up a single verse which clearly indicates that the word "Aymaan" used in this phrase means "oaths".
2lease do explain the nature of your "EXCEPTIONAL CONTRACT" which you are forcing neo-muslim ladies to pass through before getting into nikaah of muslisms.
Dear kshad99
I pulled your attention to the usage of a word that consistently used to mean OATH rather than POWER or HANDS, as a response you pulled my attention to two dictionaries, albeit good ones, that were written centuries later after hadith and sectarian jurisprudence contaminated the meaning of some Quranic words. You criticize me for daring to question the authority of fallible humans and their work which was influenced by hadith and sunnah. But you dare not to pay attention to the usage of the Quran.
For instance, if we trust those books with our eyes and noses closed, we would still believe the absurd stories about Muhammad being an illeterate man, since they render the meaning of Ummi to be Illiterate.
Not only the consistent usage of the word AYMAN in the Quran supports our position, also Quran's categorical rejection of slavery leaves no doubt about its meaning in the QURANIC (not in the Lisan-ul Arab or Tac-ul Arus). According to the Quran a muslim cannot possess a slave. Period. Anyone who finds the right to posses another human being is no different than Pharaoh; they all arrogate themselves to be the RABB (master) of others.
Peace,
Edip
Dear Edip
You have a mind set and that is "traditionalist phobia' .If a traditionalist says that "God is one" probably you may oppose this because it was said by a traditionalist.
you have yourself admitted that the word " "
1Hands
2Oaths
I admit that Quran has used this word in the meaning of oaths also.
How does this imply the word used in the phrase ' '
also means "oaths"?
Secondly,I have given you two most authenticated references regarding this Phrase which clearly show that " " in this phrase means = hands.
you give me only one reference from any book from Classical Arabic which clearly says that this word in this phrase means "Oath".This is my OPEN CHALLANGE TO YOU.
So much so this phrase is being used in modern Arabic also.
"Arabic English Dictionary by Hans Wehr " has discussed " " twice
One for the meaning of "right hand " and one for the meaning of "oath"
This phrase " (ك "=his possessions ,has been discussed by him under the meaning of Right hand .
As far as your emotional description of slavery is concerned that is absolutely a different discussion.Here I am only concerned about its meanings.
From your writing I get the impression you do not even understand the correct status of "' ".If you are putting it equivalent to "slavery " then you need to revise your Islamic knowledge.
AGAIN YOU HAVE EVADED AND CIRCUMVENTED MY QUESTION ABOUT THE NATURE OF "EXCEPTIONAL CONTRACT " WHICH ANY NEO-MUSLIM LADY HAS TO PASS THROUGH BEFORE NIKAH.
Still waiting for reply of these two requirements.
Dear brother kshad99
Thank you very much for your time trying to improve the translation.
I found your lengthy exposition mostly irrelevant for the main point you are trying to make. First, I think it is obvious that a divorce done with the participation of two parties is different than the divorce done without the participation of both party.
As for the meaning of the "Ma malakat aymanUkum" or "Ma malakat aymanAkum" I disagree with you that we should rely on the traditional meaning ascribed to the expression. Interestingly, you ignored he references I gave in my short discussion on the translation of this verse
I do not think that "ma malakat ayman!kum" is an expression like "beat around the bush", which cannot be analyzed to its components linguistically. Your evidence is the very sources that I have no trust in; especially when the issue is about slavery, wars, freedom, women's rights, etc.
Peace,
Edip
"I do not believe " expression can be put anywhere.Poeple have rejected Prophets.Who could stop them.
As far as classical Arabic is concerned authority is not Edip but those persons who have spent there lives in this field.
Taj ul Aroos and Lisaan ul arab such references which no one has ever dared to contradict them.
you are saying so because it clearly rebutted your translation.
As far as my example of "beat about the bush " is concerned ,that is true.
Probably you did not know that "Maa malakat Aymaanukum" is an arabic phrase.
As far divorce is concerned ,again you are not aware if any court declares a divorce ,that is implemented and considered to be as valid as that lady has been formally divorced.
You have circumvented my question about "exceptional contract' If a married non-muslim lady becomes muslim now.What "exceptional contract " as prosposed by you she has to undergo to get into nikaah of a muslim.
By putting such type of unusual behaviour to those neo - muslim lady you are in fact degrading her when Islam (Quran) does not discriminate her from rest of muslim ladies.
I am waiting for explanation of "Exceptional contract"
Dear kshad99
Please see my posting on this verse on top of THIS page.
Peace,
Edip
Dear Edip
You have based the translation of "
If we analyse this verse then we came to know following facts about these women
AND YOU HAVE CATEGORIZED THEM AS
AND SAID
"
These were the wives of the enemy combatants who were persecuted because they acknowledged the message of Islam and sought asylum at the Muslim community (6010). Since they did not get through a normal divorce process, an exceptional contract allows them to marry muslims as free women. Marrying them could create some social, economic and personal complications for the husband"
According to you
1THEY DID NOT GET NORMAL DIVORCE PROCESS (edip)
But this is wrong.Divorce was done by Allah .Even courts declare divorce if the husband does not give formal divorce.
2 AN EXCEPTIONAL ALLOWS THEM TO MARRY MUSLIMS AS FREE WOMAN.(edip)
You did not explain what was the nature of this "EXCEPTIONAL CONTRACT"
Suppose today a non ?muslim woman embraces Islam and her husband does not divorce her.The court declares the divorce ,we would like to know that EXCEPTIONAL CONTRACT " which is going to be arranged for her.
But in fact the women who are grouped as
Are considered categorically as a different group
43
424
In the next paragraph you said
" The word YaMYN means "right hand" or metaphorically "right," "power" or "control." However, its plural form aYMaN is consistently mentioned in the Quran to mean not "right hands" but to mean "oaths" or "promises," implying the mutual nature of the relationship (See 433 589; 912; 1691-94; 2224-225; 3028; 662; 553; 6109). This unique Quranic usage is similar to the semantic difference between the singular and plural forms of the word Ayat (signs) (see 2106).
The expression in question, thus could be translated as "those whom your oaths/contracts have rights over" or "those whom you hold rights through your contracts," or by reading aYMaN (oaths/contracts) as an object rather than a subject, "those who hold/possess your contracts."
No doubt that "Yameen" means
and the word "aymaan" is plural of "yameen' and the actual phrase is
What your "Aymaan" Possessed
You are ignoring the word " " which is giving the meaning of
Secondly this is a well know Arabic phrase and phrases in any languages should be translated in the sense in which people of that language use it.
For example in English if someone say that
1 Person so and so is 'beating about the bush" .Does is really mean that that he has some stick in the hand and is beating the ground around some bush ??
2 Do not believe person so and so ,he is "spinning the yarn".Would you translate is literally without paying attention what is meant by 'to spin the yarn'
Many examples can be given
Is an Arabic phrase which does mean "Possession" no matter what is the nature of possession
If it has some other meaning please bring the Proof from the classical Arabic literature.
Look at these reference which clearly explain whether this "Aymaan means "right hand or oath
( 1 / 6790)
( 10 / 491)
So this phrase has nothing to do with "Oaths".
Here is our translation of verse 43, 24 and my argument for them
43 If you fear that you cannot be just to fatherless orphans, then marry those whom you see fit from the women, two, and three, and four. But if you fear you will not be fair then only one, or whom you already have contract with. So that you do not commit injustice and suffer hardship.*
you have translated "maa malakat aymaanukum" as
whom you already have contract with
Please can you explain it?
Salaam POF
"Rijaal" does not primarily mean "men". It means those who seek; on foot. It could be "men" or "women". Also, "nisaa'" is not the plural of "imra'a" but the plural of "nas' " the delayed; remainder, left behind. We find both meanings in the quraan.
Dear Samia
Thanks for input
You said
Rijaal" does not primarily mean "men".
Whenever "Rajulun" is in the meaning of "sex" of human beings it is always "man" never "woman"
In fact 'rijaal' (when it is plural of "rajulun= man" does mean "men" primarily
" .
/
( )
You are confusing this "rijaal" when it becomes plural of "raajilun" which means "pedestrian" then no doubt it is used for "men" or woman" commonly.But then it does not mean "woman" but " pedestrian"
This is the meaning of "pedestrian" which is given in your quoted verse
2227
(2227) and make a proclamation to the people to come to you for Hajj from far and near, on foot and on lean *46 camels
022.027
YUSUFALI "And proclaim the Pilgrimage among men they will come to thee on foot and (mounted) on every kind of camel, lean on account of journeys through deep and distant mountain highways;
PICKTHAL And proclaim unto mankind the pilgrimage. They will come unto thee on foot and on every lean camel; they will come from every deep ravine,
SHAKIR And proclaim among men the Pilgrimage they will come to you on foot and on every lean camel, coming from every remote path,
This word "rijaalan" in this verse is not in the meaning of" sex" rather in the meaning of "state" of their coming i.e on foot.
You also said
Also, "nisaa'" is not the plural of "imra'a" but the plural of "nas' "
I do not know your source of information;
"Nisaa" is the plural of "imra3atun"
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( 3 / 480)
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( 15 / 321)
( )
( 1 / 8621)
( ) ( )
Your whole concept is revolving aroung the verse
4127
No doubt the question is about "Nisaa" and its answer is expanded.
The reason is "Kuffar" used not give inheritance to women,orphans and Younger ones.It is the reason answer is expanded collectively because of similar treatment carried out in case of inheritance by Kuffaar.
It does not mean at all the word "nisaa" itself contain all those meanings.
Because in that all other verses which contain this word will be compromised in case of meaning.