Sallam dear brothers and sisters..

First , I would like to congratulate the moderators for maintaining such an interesting board, full of energy and interesting debates...

Second, I would like to comment on what member Al-Qadeem wrote here...

The fact that Joseph(PBUH) did not live during the time of Pharoah ( by the way, the correct spelling is 'Pharoah' not 'Pharaoh' wink ) may be historically accurate. Also , in the Quran, Joseph states that he was a descendant of Isaac(PBUH) and Jacob(PBUH), which puts him in the lineage of Abraham(PBUH). This doesn't mean that he was necessarily the grandchild of Abraham, but rather that he belonged to the same ethnic lineage. Moses(PBUH) on the other hand, does not seem to belong to this same lineage.

Al-Qadeem stated that Joseph lived long before Moses... During time when Egypt was not unified..
Historically this would be impossible. For this assumption to be true, Joseph would have had to exist during the pre-dynastic period ( before 3000 B.C!!! ). A more correct assumption would be that Joseph existed during the Ptolemic Age. ( Many Jewish sources agree with this, although the use of the term "Pharoah" to describe the rulers of the Ptolemic era is indeed innacurate ). The Ptolemic rulers never used that title.

Hence
Moses actually came LONG BEFORE Joseph, rather than the other way around. If we accept the theory that the Pharoah who drowned was RamsesII ( or perhaps his son Mernephta ) , this was during the 19th Dynasty ( between 1280 and 1210 BC ). The Ptolemic era, which marked the dissolution of Egypt into Satraps, each ruled by a governor , began in the 4th Century B.C. ( Egypt was no longer unified ).

Conclusion Moses and Joseph were separated by some 8 centuries.

I will post links to some web pages ( some of them Jewish ) to provide evidence, so that member albion can be satisfied wink

As for Al-Qadeem's theory concerning Adam, I eagerly await his post