What we revealed to you in this scripture is the truth, CONSUMMATING all previous scriptures. GOD is fully Cognizant of His servants, Seer.

the word "Consummating" to me means to join together and make as ONE. So the way I read this sura is the quran is the last scripture and when it is joined (Consummated) with the previous scriptures, god's word is than complete..

god would not say "Consummating" if the previous scripture are corrupt. Why would God Consummate the quran with something that is corrupt?. That makes no sense to me.

I haven't been able to find a verse in the quran that says the previous scriptures are corrupt, but in fact god just says in the quran that jews and christians didn't follow the previous scriptures.

Am I wrong in thinking this?

could any free-mind thinkers tell me what the true meaning of the word 'believer' is in reference marrying a believer... I am confused about this issue mainly to do with the fact that muslim men can marry non-muslims (i.e believing christians or believing jews) but muslim women can't marry a non muslim (i.e believing christian or believing jew)...

This inequallity appears to contradict verses in the quran like (2221)

"And do not marry the polytheist women until they believe. A believing slave woman is better that a polytheist woman, even though the latter may please you. And do not marry your womenfolk to disbelieving men until they believe. A believing slave is better that a polytheist even though the latter may please you . . ."

according to this verse (2221) muslim men and muslim women should have this verse applied to them equally

I mean no offense in asking this question it is just something that confuses me

could any free-mind thinkers tell me what the true meaning of the word 'believer' in reference marrying a believer... I am confused about this issue mainly in to do with the fact that muslim men can marry non-muslim (i.e believing christians or believing jews) but muslim women can't marry a non muslim (i.e believing christian or believing jew)...

This appears to contradict verses in the quran like (2221)

"And do not marry the polytheist women until they believe. A believing slave woman is better that a polytheist woman, even though the latter may please you. And do not marry your womenfolk to disbelieving men until they believe. A believing slave is better that a polytheist even though the latter may please you . . ."

according to this verse (2221) muslim men and muslim women should have this verse applied to them equally

I mean no offense in asking this question it is just something that confuses me