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  2. Critical Examination of Islam
  3. Quranic Divinity
  4. Virgin Birth of Isa

Virgin Birth of Isa

Scheduled Pinned Locked Moved Quranic Divinity
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    sirohey
    wrote on last edited by
    #109

    How was Adam born?? that must have been pretty miraculous ... don't you think ....... ??

    God can do whatever He wants .... if He can create the Heavens and the Earth, what makes you think He cannot create a mere human without the act of copulation -))

    How mankind deludes itself ... we are nothing ... and GOD can make much more than nothing out of thin air -))

    Jesus was born without a father ... his fathers are Abraham (as a believer) and Adam (as one form mankind) ......... the spirit Gabriel descended from GOD to deliver Jesus to Mary ....... without a mans penis going into her ...... period ..... take it or leave it .... either you accept all the book or non of it ..... there is no middle ground .. and if you don't believe there is a Creator .. nothing really matters anyways whether you accept or reject

    Peace

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      belH
      wrote on last edited by
      #110

      Peace,

      With the Nazerenes, a female was considered a virgin until she got her first child. As Jesus was her first child, he was born out of a "virgin". They used also the term that is more closely to the Aramiac term for "maiden" that was mistranslated to the greek word for "virgin". This is how the misunderstanding was created as Romans were used to virgin births from the Mithra and Isis-Horus myths.

      This is why the Quran cannot support a Christian myth that even was uphold in the first Christian movement until 60 years later.

      Do not believe this Comment; The Quran Supports the Virgin Bearth of Jesus.
      And if you follow this comment you will go astray. elektro

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        unknownuser
        wrote on last edited by
        #111

        Peace,

        With the Nazerenes, a female was considered a virgin until she got her first child. As Jesus was her first child, he was born out of a "virgin". They used also the term that is more closely to the Aramiac term for "maiden" that was mistranslated to the greek word for "virgin". This is how the misunderstanding was created as Romans were used to virgin births from the Mithra and Isis-Horus myths.

        Paul clearly says Joseph is the father of Jesus.

        This is why the Quran cannot support a Christian myth that even was uphold in the first Christian movement until 60 years later.

        Do not confuse traditions with the rules of GOD.
        It does not matter what the traditions "considered."
        One should not try to understand scripture based on "traditional" definitions.
        Here's an example...

        In some modern societies....it is common to move in and live with a girlfriend/boyfriend without acknowledging the bonds of marriage.
        Many won't even say that they are "married in the eyes of God..." they just claim to be "lovers."

        Often times when the woman does eventually get married she will usually where white (a symbol of purity) because she has never "officially" been married.
        This is tradition.
        Not based on the Quran.
        Should we use this understanding of purity for interpretting the Quran?
        No.
        Look to the Quran for your definitions of chastity or virginity.

        Salam,
        Arnab

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          arnoldyasin
          wrote on last edited by
          #112

          Do not confuse traditions with the rules of GOD.
          It does not matter what the traditions "considered."
          One should not try to understand scripture based on "traditional" definitions.
          Here's an example...

          Salaam Arnab,

          I mentioned it to explain how the misunderstanding was created in Christian thought. My understanding of no virgin birth in the Quran stands seperate from what I mention above.

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            Samia
            wrote on last edited by
            #113

            Moremover, God did blow His Spirit into the bashar/Neanderthal, which was already created of dust, to turn them into Adam/Homo sapiens (wise, knowing humans)...So He blew into jesus to make him wise and knowing, not into a "faraj" to make someone pregnant. This is the comparison between Adam (us) and Jesus.

            1920 She said "How can I have a son when no human being has been with me, nor have I desired such?"

            1920 Qalat anna yakoonu lee ghulamun walam yamsasnee basharun walam aku baghiyyan

            O.K. so that's what Mary was saying... but what was it, the Neanderthal or the Homo-Ergaster that hadn't touched her??? ??? ;D

            adjwi

            How about No human has been with me , (not even a Neanderthal)?

            But seriously
            What's the difference between "insaan" and "bashar"? Or rather What's the similarity between "insaan" and "bashar"?
            Hint 3uluum insaaniyya Human sciences
            Tib bashary Medicine

            The difference the intellect
            The similarity the anatomy.

            When Mary said "lam yamsasny bashar" she was referring to the anatomical aspect.

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              belH
              wrote on last edited by
              #114

              Peace all

              (&#1632

              Then will Allah say "O Jesus, the son of Mary! recount my favour to thee and to thy mother. Behold! I strengthened thee with the holy spirit, so that thou didst speak to the people in childhood and in maturity. Behold! I taught thee the Book and Wisdom, the Law and the Gospel. And behold! thou makest out of clay, as it were, the figure of a bird, by My leave, and thou breathest into it and it becometh a bird by My leave, and thou healest those born blind, and the lepers, by My leave. And behold! thou bringest forth the dead by My leave. And behold! I did restrain the Children of Israel from (violence to) thee when thou didst show them the Clear Signs, and the unbelievers among them said `This is nothing but evident magic'. (4-110)

              (&#1638

              And behold! Allah will say "O Jesus the son of Mary! Didst thou say unto men, `worship me and my mother as gods in derogation of Allah"? He will say "Glory to Thee! never could I say what I had no right (to say). Had I said such a thing, Thou wouldst indeed have known it. Thou knowest what is in my heart, though I know not what is in Thine. For Thou knowest in full all that is hidden. (4-116)

              Why GOD Called him "THE SON OF MARY". Is that aginest GODS order that says CALL THEM BY THEIR FATHER?

              (&#1637

              Call them by (the names) of their fathers that is juster in the sight of Allah but if ye know not their father's (names, call them), your Brothers in faith, or your Mawlas. But there is no blame on you if ye make a mistake therein (what counts is) the intention of your hearts and Allah is Oft-Returning, Most Merciful. (33-5)

              DO you know that Calling some one by his Mother name is a SIN?

              The Virgin Birth of Jesus is The TRUTH (According to GOD Words), and Jesus had no Father, simple as that.

              peace

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                arnoldyasin
                wrote on last edited by
                #115

                Peace all

                (&#1632

                Then will Allah say "O Jesus, the son of Mary! recount my favour to thee and to thy mother. Behold! I strengthened thee with the holy spirit, so that thou didst speak to the people in childhood and in maturity. Behold! I taught thee the Book and Wisdom, the Law and the Gospel. And behold! thou makest out of clay, as it were, the figure of a bird, by My leave, and thou breathest into it and it becometh a bird by My leave, and thou healest those born blind, and the lepers, by My leave. And behold! thou bringest forth the dead by My leave. And behold! I did restrain the Children of Israel from (violence to) thee when thou didst show them the Clear Signs, and the unbelievers among them said `This is nothing but evident magic'. (4-110)

                (&#1638

                And behold! Allah will say "O Jesus the son of Mary! Didst thou say unto men, `worship me and my mother as gods in derogation of Allah"? He will say "Glory to Thee! never could I say what I had no right (to say). Had I said such a thing, Thou wouldst indeed have known it. Thou knowest what is in my heart, though I know not what is in Thine. For Thou knowest in full all that is hidden. (4-116)

                Why GOD Called him "THE SON OF MARY". Is that aginest GODS order that says CALL THEM BY THEIR FATHER?

                (&#1637

                Call them by (the names) of their fathers that is juster in the sight of Allah but if ye know not their father's (names, call them), your Brothers in faith, or your Mawlas. But there is no blame on you if ye make a mistake therein (what counts is) the intention of your hearts and Allah is Oft-Returning, Most Merciful. (33-5)

                DO you know that Calling some one by his Mother name is a SIN?

                The Virgin Birth of Jesus is The TRUTH (According to GOD Words), and Jesus had no Father, simple as that.

                peace

                This already had been discussed before in detail, please look it up. All of your points are boring since they are old and already refuted before again and again.

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                  Samia
                  wrote on last edited by
                  #116

                  (&#1637

                  Call them by (the names) of their fathers that is juster in the sight of Allah but if ye know not their father's (names, call them), your Brothers in faith, or your Mawlas. But there is no blame on you if ye make a mistake therein (what counts is) the intention of your hearts and Allah is Oft-Returning, Most Merciful. (33-5)

                  DO you know that Calling some one by his Mother name is a SIN?

                  " " Chapter 2170
                  Is this verse speaking about the fathers? Can we conclude, according to your understanding, that the ones who are irrational, ignorant, unknowledgeable ...etc fall in the category of fathers only...?

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                    Soof
                    wrote on last edited by
                    #117

                    Call them by (the names) of their fathers that is juster in the sight of Allah but if ye know not their father's (names, call them), your Brothers in faith, or your Mawlas. But there is no blame on you if ye make a mistake therein (what counts is) the intention of your hearts and Allah is Oft-Returning, Most Merciful. (33-5)

                    DO you know that Calling some one by his Mother name is a SIN?

                    The Virgin Birth of Jesus is The TRUTH (According to GOD Words), and Jesus had no Father, simple as that.

                    peace

                    What are you talking about? Jesus in Arabic would be called Isa bin Miryam. Which means Jesus was called by his Mother's name! He is called so in the Qur'an. Where did you get this that calling someone after his Mother's name is a sin?
                    What the

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                      unknownuser
                      wrote on last edited by
                      #118

                      " " Chapter 2170
                      Is this verse speaking about the fathers? Can we conclude, according to your understanding, that the ones who are irrational, ignorant, unknowledgeable ...etc fall in the category of fathers only...?

                      -\

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                        belH
                        wrote on last edited by
                        #119

                        This already had been discussed before in detail, please look it up. All of your points are boring since they are old and already refuted before again and again.

                        Arnold

                        Chill out
                        can you tell me where so I can gain some valuable information from you ;D.
                        Otherwise, it is very clear that God called him by his Mother because he has no father. But if he had Father, as you claim (by the way you are the only human who ever said that nonsense to me), God would have called him by his father.
                        Mr. Arnold, you need to learn Arabic, Quran and Logic before claiming something that contradicts more than 5 Billion people?s Belief.
                        You need to understand that Miracles do exist, and the Quran supports them. Otherwise you are misleading people away from God?s Path.

                        What are you talking about? Jesus in Arabic would be called Isa bin Miryam. Which means Jesus was called by his Mother's name! He is called so in the Qur'an. Where did you get this that calling someone after his Mother's name is a sin?
                        What the

                        Salam
                        God called Jesus by his Mother because he had no Father. That was my argument.
                        Calling someone with his mother name, according to 33-5 is wrong (I should not say Sin), and that is why God never Called anybody in the Quran by his Mother name, except Jesus (PBUH). All countries use the Father Name and Grand Father Name to Call their Citizens, it is a Culture and Religious Habit.

                        " " Chapter 2170
                        Is this verse speaking about the fathers? Can we conclude, according to your understanding, that the ones who are irrational, ignorant, unknowledgeable ...etc fall in the category of fathers only...?

                        Sorry I do not clearly understand your point.
                        But verse 33-5 says that we should call people with their Father name if we know who are their fathers, simple as that.
                        Please let me know if you understand it differently.

                        For Verse 2-170, God is answering the people who are saying that they are following their Fathers Footsteps (Religious Teachings) even if the teachings are aginest Gods Teachings (The Books). Thus, them and their Fathers are Irrational, Ignorant, and Unknowledgeable.

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                          arnoldyasin
                          wrote on last edited by
                          #120

                          Mr. Arnold, you need to learn Arabic, Quran and Logic before claiming something that contradicts more than 5 Billion peoples Belief.

                          Peace,

                          Well till know it is me explaining Arabic to you )

                          And logic comes from science and reasoning not following the forefathers blindly )

                          And it is funny you mention the majority....

                          6116 (People will confront you with what the majority is doing.) Now if you pay heed to, or get intimidated by majority of those who live on
                          earth, they will lead you astray from Gods way. Most of the people follow nothing but conjecture and they only live by guesswork.

                          I do hope the majority mankind will grow up someday, but God warns us they are and will never be the yardstick of truth...

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                            huruf
                            wrote on last edited by
                            #121

                            That about the name of the mothers has left me speechless. IF i don't remember wrong there is an aya in the Quran about the rights of the womb. Funny that the womb bearer however must not even have her name given to the fruit of the womb.

                            And the aya given by Belalhamd relates to something else and speaks about the use of the those times in Arabia. If we follow that reasoning we could end up advocating paganism because that was the Arab's usage.

                            There are many million of people in the world who keept the mothers name. All spanish and portugese speaking people have both the father and mothers family name. I have never been able to understand why everywhere else is not the same, I find it insulting.

                            Salaam

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                              belH
                              wrote on last edited by
                              #122

                              That about the name of the mothers has left me speechless. IF i don't remember wrong there is an aya in the Quran about the rights of the womb. Funny that the womb bearer however must not even have her name given to the fruit of the womb.

                              And the aya given by Belalhamd relates to something else and speaks about the use of the those times in Arabia. If we follow that reasoning we could end up advocating paganism because that was the Arab's usage.

                              There are many million of people in the world who keept the mothers name. All spanish and portugese speaking people have both the father and mothers family name. I have never been able to understand why everywhere else is not the same, I find it insulting.

                              Salaam

                              It is not me who you disagree with, it is the Verse (GOD WORDS).

                              Call them by (the names) of their fathers that is juster in the sight of Allah but if ye know not their father's (names, call them), your Brothers in faith, or your Mawlas. But there is no blame on you if ye make a mistake therein (what counts is) the intention of your hearts and Allah is Oft-Returning, Most Merciful. (33-5)

                              When I post, I do not add any thing except what is in the Quran' otherwise it is a Shrik.

                              God Called Jesus by his Mother Name in more that 15 Verse (he never Called him by a Father Name), and God did that To tell us That Jesus has no Father.
                              If you need to explore more in 33-5, then we should choose other thread, or we will be off Topic.

                              Well till know it is me explaining Arabic to you )

                              Do you call your Arabic...Arabic.
                              Well, I call it a Twisted Arabic. It is an Arabic that meant to Mislead away from the true meaning of the Arabic.

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                                belH
                                wrote on last edited by
                                #123

                                I do hope the majority mankind will grow up someday

                                And become like you; what an EGO. yes

                                Arnold
                                As you know SHRIK is to associate with God what he did not indicate in His Books; can you tell me how did you associate with God (his religion) that Jesues Has a Father, and his name is "Joseph? (I need a proof from The Quran).
                                And if you do not, then if I follow you I will be making you God within God, simple as that.

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                                  Samia
                                  wrote on last edited by
                                  #124

                                  Sorry I do not clearly understand your point.
                                  But verse 33-5 says that we should call people with their Father name if we know who are their fathers, simple as that.
                                  Please let me know if you understand it differently.

                                  For Verse 2-170, God is answering the people who are saying that they are following their Fathers Footsteps (Religious Teachings) even if the teachings are aginest Gods Teachings (The Books). Thus, them and their Fathers are Irrational, Ignorant, and Unknowledgeable.

                                  If you understand what you are explaining in the above post, that should do. " aabaa' Fathers" are not necessarily males only. Scan the qur'aan for this word "'aabaa'" and show me where it must be males only.

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                                    unknownuser
                                    wrote on last edited by
                                    #125

                                    Salam,

                                    " aabaa' Fathers" are not necessarily males only.

                                    This is correct. The word is not gender specific.
                                    The word aba is also not gender specific in the Torah, and the Injeel....the same as alif-meem is also not gender specific.

                                    Just To clarify....what Belalhammad is saying is CORRECT.

                                    However, we must understand at the same time that "aba" is not gender specific.

                                    That it can refer to both sexes....then we can fully understand why Isa is called "Isa ibn Marium."

                                    Just as a side note
                                    The ancient pictographs of the root alif-ba (based on Ancient Hebrew) are

                                    alif=ox head
                                    beyt/ba=floorplan of a house

                                    when they are put together one can understand that one of the meanings is "strong one of the house."

                                    Salam,
                                    Arnab

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                                      belH
                                      wrote on last edited by
                                      #126

                                      If you understand what you are explaining in the above post, that should do. " aabaa' Fathers" are not necessarily males only. Scan the qur'aan for this word "'aabaa'" and show me where it must be males only.

                                      Are you an arbic speaker?
                                      I'm.

                                      "Ab" is Father and "OM" is mother.

                                      (&#65279
                                      And from his mother and his father. (80-35)

                                      In the Qran, Most of the time, God define them by saying "Omhatkom" when he mention Mothers, and "Abaokom" when he mention Fathers; And sometimes it will mean both. In otther words, it will depend in the Verse itself.

                                      God might say "Abohoma", as in verse 18-82, to mention both Father and Mother.
                                      In verse 33-5 God says "Abaohom" which is for Fathers.
                                      The reason I'm saying that is in verse 33-4, God mention Mothers, and I know that this verse was revealed to porhibt us from calling the adopted sons by the name of the Father who adopted him.

                                      (&#65279

                                      Allah has not made for any man two hearts in his (one) body nor has He made your wives whom ye divorce by Zihar your mothers nor has He made your adopted sons your sons. Such is (only) your (manner of) speech by your mouths. But Allah tells (you) the Truth, and He shows the (right) Way. (33-4)

                                      Thus, based on my understanding, 33-5 is calling us to call them by their Fathers.

                                      And therefore, if God Called Jesus by his Mother instead of a Father Name, then Jesus had no Father,

                                      Peace
                                      (sorry for thr late modification)
                                      Note in Arab Culture, calling somebody by his mother name is an insult D

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                                        belH
                                        wrote on last edited by
                                        #127

                                        Salam,

                                        This is correct. The word is not gender specific.
                                        The word aba is also not gender specific in the Torah, and the Injeel....the same as alif-meem is also not gender specific.

                                        Just To clarify....what Belalhammad is saying is CORRECT.

                                        However, we must understand at the same time that "aba" is not gender specific.

                                        That it can refer to both sexes....then we can fully understand why Isa is called "Isa ibn Marium."

                                        Just as a side note
                                        The ancient pictographs of the root alif-ba (based on Ancient Hebrew) are

                                        alif=ox head
                                        beyt/ba=floorplan of a house

                                        when they are put together one can understand that one of the meanings is "strong one of the house."

                                        Salam,
                                        Arnab

                                        Peace;
                                        So, how do you understand 33-5

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                                          belH
                                          wrote on last edited by
                                          #128

                                          If you understand what you are explaining in the above post, that should do. " aabaa' Fathers" are not necessarily males only. Scan the qur'aan for this word "'aabaa'" and show me where it must be males only.

                                          Moreover, 33-5 says "if ye know not their father's ", and if knowing the Mother is never been a problem and knowing the Father is a problem, then "Abaohom" is for Fathers.

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